What is the meaning of "Kein B'nos Tz'lofchad Dovrosn"?
Rashi #1 (citing Targum Onkelos) and Targum Yonasan: It means that their claim was justified, since that is precisely what was written before Hashem on high!', and it teaches us that Hashem upheld the B'nos Tz'lofchad's claim, 1 and that they saw something that Moshe did not see 2 .
Rashi #2 (in Mikeitz, Bereishis, 42:11): "Kein" is equivalent to 'Emes' (or 'According to the Din' - Rashi in Yirmiyah, 8:6).
What are the implications of the double expression "Nason Titen"?
Rashi: It implies that the B'nos Tz'lofchad were to receive two portions in Eretz Yisrael; one, that of Tz'lofchad, who left Egypt, the other, the portion that he was due to receive together with his brothers, in the inheritance of his father Cheifer (who also left Egypt, and was no longer alive).
Oznayim la'Torah: It implies tghat they received two independent portions; one in Eiver ha'Yarden, the other, in Eretz Yisrael. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah, who elaborates and who also discusses why the B'nos Tz'lofchad - who weremalready over forty, were not yet married.
Why did Hashem say "Nason Titen lahem" (masculine) and not 'lahen'?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because He was giving them the status of males (inheritance-wise). 1
Why did Hashem give such a lengthy response to the B'nos Tz'lofchad, when "Nason Titen lahem Achuzas Nachalah" would have sufficed?
Why does the Torah use the word "ve'Ha'avarta" (here and in Pasuk 8) instead of 'u'Nesatem'?
Rashi #1: It is an expression of 'Evrah', anger, because Hashem is angry 1 with someone who does not leave a son to inherit him. 2
Rashi #2: Because whoever leaves no sons, only daughters, is in effect, passing over 3 his inheritance to another tribe, seeing as a woman's son or husband inherits her. 4
Rashi #3 (in Bo, 13:12): It means 'You shall separate' (set aside).
The Gemara in Bava Basra, 116a learns this from Gezeirah Shavah from "Yom Evrah ha'Yom ha'Hu", Tzefanta, 1:15. Oznayim la'Torah: Perhaps Chazal mean that he did not leave a son because Hashem was angry with him.
Presumably, it only applies to someone who made no effort to do so. See also Torah Temimah on Pasuk 8, note 20.
Which is the literal meaning of "Veha'avarta".
See Torh Temimah, note 19. Rashi (citing Bava Basra, 120a): Since the La'av of marrying into another tribe (See 36:9) was confined to that generation only. And the Torah writes it here in connection with the B'nos Tz'lofchad, who eventually married men from the same tribe, because they were were grsnted special permission to marry men from any tribe. See Oznayim la'Torah.
