1)

(a)Which Melachah does cutting off the wart of an animal constitute?

(b)It is permitted for a Kohen to cut off the wart of an animal by hand in the Mikdash, but not using a vessel. Why is that?

(c)Why is it necessary to remove warts in the Mikdash at all?

1)

(a)Cutting off the wart of an animal is a Toldah of Gozez.

(b)A Kohen may cut off the wart of an animal by hand in the Beis Hamikdash - because using ones hand and not an instrument is 'Kele'achar Yad', and Chazal did not generally Isurim d'Rabanan in the Mikdash.

(c)It is necessary to remove animals warts in the Mikdash - because they are considered a blemish, and blemishes disqualify Korbanos from being brought on the Mizbe'ach.

2)

(a)The Mishnah in Pesachim forbids cutting off a wart on Shabbos - even in the Beis Hamikdash. Some establish both Mishnahs by a wet wart (which is a blemish). How do they reconcile the two Mishnahs?

(b)Why do they not want to establish the leniency in our Mishnah by a dry wart, and to ascribe the leniency to the fact that a dry wart is not really a blemish?

2)

(a)Those who establish both Mishnahs (even the Mishnah in Pesachim which forbids the removal of a blemish in the Mikdash) by a wet wart - explains that that Mishnah speaks about removing it with an instrument.

(b)They do not want to establish the leniency in our Mishnah by a dry wart, and to ascribe the leniency to the fact that a dry wart is not really a blemish - because, in their opinion, the removal of a dry wart would be permitted even using an instrument.

3)

(a)Others establish both Mishnahs with regard to the removal of the wart by hand. How do they then reconcile the two Mishnahs?

(b)Why do they not want to ascribe the stringency in the Mishnah in Pesachim to the fact that it is being removed with an instrument?

(c)How do the other Amora'im (who do use this answer) account for the fact that our Mishnah has already stated it.

(d)The counter-argument is that the Mishnah there needs to tell us about the Machlokes Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabanan. How do those who establish the Mishnah in Pesachim by the removal of a wet wart using an instrument, counter the argument that specifically establishes it by a case of an Isur d'Rabanan, because the case must be similar to carrying the animal and bringing it from outside the Techum, both of which are also included in the Mishnah there, and both of which are only d'Rabanan?

3)

(a)Those who establish both Mishnahs with regard to the removal of the wart by hand - explain that our Mishnah speaks by a dry wart, and the Mishnah in Pesachim, by a wet one.

(b)They do not want to ascribe the stringency in the Mishnah in Pesachim to the fact that it is being removed with an instrument - since our Mishnah has already stated that ('ve'Im bi'Ch'li, Kan v'Kan Asur').

(c)The Amora'im who do answer that the Mishnah in Pesachim speaks about the removal of a wet wart with an instrument, explain that it is necessary to mention it there (in spite of the fact that our Mishnah has already done so here) - in order to introduce the Machlokes Rebbi Eliezer and the Chachamim, who argue specifically about an Isur d'Rabanan.

(d)Those who do establish the Mishnah in Pesachim by the removal of a wet wart using an instrument - explain that all the cases there are, in fact, dOraysa. How is that? Because to begin with, that Tana disagrees with Rebbi Nasan, who holds that' an animal carries itself' (and that carrying it on Shabbos therefore, constitutes only an Isur d'Rabanan). The Tana in Pesachim is of the opinion that carrying an animal on Shabbos is indeed an Isur d'Oraysa; and as for bringing it from outside the Techum, he follows the opinion of Rebbi Akiva, who holds that the Isur of Techumin is d'Oraysa.

4)

(a)The Gemara however, rejects this explanation on the basis of Rebbi Eliezer's 'Kal va'Chomer' in Pesachim. What statement does Rebbi Eliezer make which disqualifies it?

(b)Rav Yosef therefore changes the initial explanation completely. Both Mishnahs speak about removing a wet boil with the hand, he says, and the Tana in Pesachim is more strict by the Korban Pesach than by other Korbanos. Why is that?

(c)Rav Safra asked Abaye from the Mishnah on 97b, which permits someone whose Sefer rolled out of his hand from the threshold into the street to roll it back, which seems to suggest that we do not apply a Shevus d'Mikdash elsewhere. Why is that called a 'Shevus d'Mikdash'?

(d)What did Abaye answer?

4)

(a)The Gemara however, rejects the above explanation on the basis of Rebbi Eliezer, who makes a Kal va'Chomer, in which he specifically states that bringing the animal in and removing the wart are only Asur mid'Rabanan.

(b)The Tana in Pesachim forbids the removal of a wet wart even by hand (even though our Mishnah permits it), says Rav Yosef, because although the removal of a wart from the Korban Pesach was for the needs of the Mikdash, it was not performed by the Kohanim in the Mikdash, but by each owner in his own home, before bringing it to the Mikdash to be sacrificed. Consequently, it is not considered a Shevus which is permitted in the Beis Hamikdash. (Note: According to Rav Yosef, everyone agrees that the removal of a dry wart is permitted even using an instrument.)

(c)A Sefer is Kodesh (which is why the Tana permits rolling it back from the street) - and can therefore be compared to a Shevus d'Mikdash outside the Beis Hamikdash.

(d)Abaye replied that we have already established the Mishnah there by an Iskupas Karmelis, and, seeing as the person is still holding one end of the Sefer, rolling it back does not even constitute a Shevus.

5)

5)

(a)Lowering the Korban Pesach into the oven close to sunset (ignoring the normal time-to-roast-before-Shabbos that is required by roasting meat) permitted by the Mishnah in Shabbos, does not constitute a Shevus d'Mikdash outside the Mikdash, Rav Yosef explains - because of the principle 'Bnei Chaburah Zerizin Hen', giving it the same strength as the Mikdash, where the reason that most Shevusin do not apply, is because Kohanim Zerizin Hen'.

(b)Abaye did not give this answer because he disagrees with it in principle. 'Kohanim Zerizin Hen' is an established principle, but who says that it extends to groups of Yisraelim who are preparing the Korban Pesach? - he argues.

(c)The author of our Mishnah who permits removing a wet wart by hand is Rebbi Eliezer, who permits Machshirei Mitzvah on Shabbos - even if they could have been performed before Shabbos.

(d)He nevertheless forbids using an instrument - because he concedes that one should, as far as possible, make Shinuyim (i.e. do what needs to be done, but in an unusual way).

(a)How does Rav Yosef account for the Mishnah in Shabbos, which permits lowering the Korban Pesach into the oven, close to sunset, ignoring the normal time-to-roast-before-Shabbos that is required by roasting meat. Is this not a case of permitting a Shevus d'Mikdash outside the Mikdash?

(b)Abaye was silent when the question was asked. Why did he not give the answer that Rav Yosef gave?

(c)Rava reconciles the two Mishnahs by establishing them in the same way as Rav Yosef (in 4b). But according to him, the Tana in Pesachim forbids removing the wart even by hand, since it could have been done before Shabbos. Who then, is the author of our Mishnah who permits it?

(d)Then why does he forbid using an instrument?

103b----------------------------------------103b

6)

(a)The Beraisa permits a Kohen to bite off his fellow Kohen?s wart. How does Rava attempt to prove his point from here? Why does he think that the author of this Beraisa cannot be the Rabanan?

(b)The Gemara rejects this, establishing the Beraisa even like the Chachamim. Why then, must his fellow Kohen perform the task and not himself?

(c)On what grounds is this explanation in turn, refuted (and Rava vindicated)? Why is it not possible to establish the Beraisa like the Rabanan?

(d)And why will it be in order to establish it like Rebbi Eliezer? Why must his fellow Kohen remove the wart with his hands?

6)

(a)The Rabanan do not require making a Shinuy. They do however, permit a Shevus in the Mikdash. Consequently, seeing as removing a wart with one's teeth is only a Shevus, why should they restrict the Heter of removing it, to a second Kohen? Why should the Kohen not do it himself? Consequently, the author of the Beraisa must be Rebbi Eliezer, and this goes to prove that, wherever possible, Rebbi Eliezer requires a Shinuy.

(b)The Gemara, in an attempt to refute Rava's proof, argues that the author of the Beraisa could well be the Chachamim, and that the Beraisa does not restrict the removal of the wart to a second Kohen, only it speaks when the wart grew on the Kohen's back, and he cannot possibly remove it himself (what will then be the Chidush, see Tosfos DH 'she'Alsah').

(c)If the author of the Beraisa is the Rabanan, then why does he confine the Heter to biting off the wart? He should have taught us that even removing it with the hands is permitted! This would have proved Rebbi Elazar who maintains that the Rabanan are only lenient there by a Shevus, but they agree by a d'Oraysa (removing the wart with an instrument), that one is Chayav (Because Machshirei Mitzvah do not over-ride any d'Oraysos). Now however, this remains unproven, since the Tana only permits removing the wart by biting it off, but not by hand (which is Asur d'Rabanan). In that case, Machshirei Mitzvah do not even over-ride all Isurim d'Rabanan either.

(d)There will be no problem however, in establishing the Beraisa like Rebbi Eliezer, as we explained above (in 5d and 6a).

7)

(a)Most cures are forbidden mid'Rabanan on Shabbos. Then why is a Kohen serving in the Beis Hamikdash permitted to bind a reed around a wound on his finger?

(b)If however, his intention is to draw out blood, then it is forbidden - and for two possible reasons. What are they?

7)

(a)A Kohen serving in the Beis Hamikdash is permitted to bind a reed around a wound on Shabbos - because performing a cure per se, is only an Isur d'Rabanan, and since it is not nice for a Kohen to serve before Hash-m with an open wound, they permitted the Shevus of tying a reed around the wound, so that he should serve with the wound covered.

(b)But if his intention is to draw out blood, then it is forbidden - a. because this is not necessary for the Avodah, and b. because drawing blood on Shabbos is an Isur d'Oraysa, and it is only Shevusin (of Machshirei Avodah) that Chazal permitted in the Mikdash, not Isurim d'Oraysa.

8)

(a)Why might the concession for a Kohen to bind a reed around his finger not extend to a small belt?

(b)Yet Rebbi Yochanan permits a belt, too. Why?

(c)Why is even the belt not forbidden on the grounds that is a Chatzitzah (two answers)?

8)

(a)The concession for a Kohen to bind a reed around his finger does not extend to a small belt - because a small belt is a garment, and a Kohen is not permitted to wear more than four Bigdei Kehunah whilst performing the Avodah.

(b)Rebbi Yochanan maintains that an extra garment is only forbidden on a part of the body where clothes are usually worn, but not on the finger.

(c)The belt is not forbidden on the grounds that is a Chatzitzah - because we are speaking either on the left-hand or even on the right-hand, but on part of the hand with which the Kohen does not perform the Avodah.

9)

(a)Rava quoting Rav Chisda disagrees with Rebbi Yochanan. What does he say with regard to ...

1. ... b'Makom Begadim?

2. ... she'Lo b'Makom Begadim?

(b)Does this mean that he also argues with Rav Yehudah Brei d'Rebbi Chiya, who forbids even a small belt (which is less than three Tefachim by three Tefachim)?

(c)According to the second Lashon, Rebbi Yochanan too, makes a distinction by a Chatzitzah of less than three by three Tefachim, between a place on the body which is normally clothed and one which is not (exactly like Rava). According to Rebbi Yochanan (and Rava), why does the Tana of our Mishnah mention the reed? Why did he not tell us that even a small belt is permitted, and it is obvious that a reed belt is, too?

9)

(a)Rava quoting Rav Chisda says with regard to ...

1. ... b'Makom Begadim - even one thread constitutes a Chatzitzah.

2. ... she'Lo b'Makom Begadim - only three by three Tefachim constitutes a Chatzitzah (whereas Rebbi Yochanan seems to permit any size garment).

(b)Rava might well agree with Rav Yehudah Brei d'Rebbi Chiya, who forbids even a small belt (which is less than three by three Tefachim) - because a small belt is Chashuv (whereas he is talking about a small piece of plain cloth).

(c)The Tana of our Mishnah mentions a reed (and not a small belt, where the Din would be exactly the same) - in order to teach us, by the way, that a reed has the power to cure.

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