1)

(a)Reish Lakish asked whether a man can give his Amah Ivriyah to his son who is a Katan for Yi'ud, seeing as the Torah writes "v'Im li'Veno Yi'adenah", and a Katan fits into the heading of "Beno". What is the other side of the She'eilah? Why might such a Yi'ud not be valid?

(b)Based on the Pasuk in Kedoshim "v'Ish Asher Yin'af Es Eshes Ish", what does the Beraisa Darshen from ...

1. ... "v'Ish"?

2. ... "Es Eshes Ish"?

(c)How does Rebbi Zeira try to resolve Reish Lakish's She'eilah from there?

(d)How do we counter Rebbi Zeira's proof?

2)

(a)So how does Rav Ashi establish the case in the Beraisa? Why might we otherwise have thought that whoever commits adultery with his wife should be Chayav Misah?

(b)We resolve Reish Lakish's She'eilah with a statement by Rebbi Ayvu Amar Rebbi Yanai. What does Rebbi Ayvu Amar Rebbi Yanai say concerning the Yi'ud of a Katan?

(c)We initially interpret 'Ein Yi'ud Ela l'Da'as' (which appears to be redundant) as the reason for 'Ein Yi'ud Ela b'Gadol'. What alternative interpretation do we offer to explain it?

3)

(a)What does the Beraisa quoted by Abaye Brei d'Rebbi Avahu learn from "Asher Lo Ye'adah" in support of the previous (alternative) explanation?

(b)According to whom does Abaye Brei d'Rebbi Avahu establish the Beraisa in order to explain it?

(c)On what grounds does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak refute this? How does he then explain the Beraisa?

(d)What difference does it make Halachically, between whether it is the original money that forms the Kidushin or the last Perutah's-worth of work?

4)

(a)We finally quote the source of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah. What does he learn from the Pasuk "Asher Lo Ye'adah v'Hefdah"?

(b)What do the Rabanan (who are not quoted in the Beraisa) say?

(c)What is the reasoning behind Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah's ruling?

(d)What does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak say?

5)

(a)How does Rava Amar Rav Nachman extrapolate from Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah that ...

1. ... a man can instruct his daughter to accept her own Kidushin, even if she is a Ketanah?

2. ... a man can betroth a woman with a loan, provided she gives him a Mashkon?

19b----------------------------------------19b

6)

(a)According to the Chachamim of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah ...

1. ... when may the master no longer perform Yi'ud with the Amah ha'Ivriyah?

2. ... when may he no longer treat her like an Amah Ivriyah?

(b)If a man says to a woman 'Hiskadshi Li me'Achshav l'Achar Sheloshim', and someone else betroths her during those thirty days, to whom is she betrothed once the thirty days terminate?

(c)From where does the Tana of the Beraisa derive this 'Mashal'?

(d)What is the Tana teaching us regarding a case where the master did not say 'me'Achshav'?

7)

(a)In a second Beraisa, Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah rules that if someone sells his daughter and then betroths her to somebody else, the father can laugh at the master and she is betrothed to the second man. What do the Chachamim say?

(b)What 'Mashal' does the Tana give, this time in support of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah?

(c)What is the Tana teaching us with this Mashal? Is it not obvious that we can extrapolate that from the opinion of Rebbi Yosi b'Rebbi Yehudah?

8)

(a)In a third Beraisa, Rebbi Meir rules that if a man sells his daughter on condition that the master does not perform Yi'ud, his condition is valid. What do the Chachamim say?

(b)What does Rebbi Meir say with regard to someone who betroths a woman on condition that he is exempt from 'She'er K'sus v'Onah' (the basic marital obligations of a man to his wife)?

(c)On what basis does Rebbi Yehudah differentiate between food and clothing on the one hand, and Bi'ah on the other?

(d)How does Chizkiyah reconcile the apparent contradiction in Rebbi Meir, by citing the Pasuk in Mishpatim "v'Chi Yimkor Ish Es Bito l'Amah"?

9)

(a)What do the Chachamim learn from "l'Amah"?

(b)Why can we not learn this from a 'Kal va'Chomer' from the fact that he can betroth her to Pesulim (b'Di'eved)?

10)

(a)Rebbi Eliezer disagrees with the Tana Kama. What does he learn from "Im Ra'ah b'Einei Adonehah Asher Lo Ye'adah"?

(b)What does he then learn from "l'Amah"?

(c)Why does he need "l'Amah" for this? Why can he not learn it from the fact that he can sell her to Pesulim?

(d)If Rebbi Meir learns 'Mochrah li'Pesulim' from the same source as Rebbi Eliezer, why does he learn from "l'Amah" that the father's condition not to make Yi'ud is valid. Why does he not learn "Mochrah li'Kerovim', like Rebbi Eliezer?