(a)Assuming that, in the previous case of 'Kayam Lechi ha'Yom' we cannot infer 'u'Mufar l'Machar' (and the Neder is upheld), Rabah asks what the Din will be if he says 'Mufar Lechi l'Machar' (only). What must we then assume, if he were to expressly say 'Kayam Lechi ha'Yom u'Mufar l'Machar'?
(b)How do we reconcile this with the previous She'eilah ('Mufar Lach l'Machar), which clearly implies that, had he explicitly said 'Kayam Lechi ha'Yom u'Mufar l'Machar', his words would take effect?
(c)Still regarding the case of 'Mufar Lechi l'Machar', the Hafarah might not take effect, because his words imply that, today he is upholding the Neder. Why might it nevertheless take effect?
1)
(a)Assuming that, in the previous case of 'Kayam Lechi ha'Yom' we cannot infer 'u'Mufar l'Machar' (and the Neder is upheld), Rabah asks what the Din will be if he says 'Mufar Lechi l'Machar' only. We must then assume - that if he were to expressly say 'Kayam Lechi ha'Yom u'Mufar l'Machar', the Kiyum would take effect, but not the Hafarah.
(b)Even though the previous She'eilah ('Mufar Lach l'Machar) clearly implies that the Hafarah would take effect too - that is because Rabah himself has a Safek in this regard, so he uses both possibilities in forming his other She'eilos.
(c)Still regarding the case of 'Mufar Lechi l'Machar' the Hafarah might not take effect, because his words imply that, today he is upholding the Neder. On the other hand, it might take effect - because, seeing as he did not specifically uphold the Neder today, perhaps he really meant his Hafarah to come into effect already today.
2)
(a)Assuming the first side of the previous She'eilah (l'Chumra), Rabah asks what the Din will be by 'Kayam Lechi Sha'ah'. Why is 'Kayam Lechi Sha'ah' any better than 'Kayam Lechi ha'Yom', which we already resolved l'Chumra?
(b)What is then the She'eilah?
(c)Rabah's final She'eilah assumes that, in the current one, seeing as he did not expressly add 'u'Mufar l'Achar Sha'ah', his Neder is permanently upheld. What is his final She'eilah?
2)
(a)Assuming the first side of the previous She'eilah (l'Chumra), Rabah asks what the Din will be by 'Kayam Lechi Sha'ah', which is better than 'Kayam Lechi ha'Yom' (which we already resolved l'Chumra) - inasmuch as the entire day is subject to Hafarah (whereas the following day, implied in the previous She'eilah, is not).
(b)The She'eilah then is - whether 'Kayam Lechi Sha'ah' implies Hafarah after an hour, or whether we will say here too, that seeing as he did not say so specifically, we do not make the inference on our own initiative.
(c)Rabah's final She'eilah assumes that, in the current one, seeing as he did not expressly 'u'Mufar l'Achar Sha'ah', his Neder is permanently upheld. He therefore asks what the Din will be if he does add it - whether we go after his Lashon, and annul his wife (or daughter)'s Neder after the one hour, or whether we say that, once a Neder is upheld, it can no longer be annulled.
3)
(a)What does the Beraisa say about a woman who undertakes Nezirus, and the husband hears her and declares 'va'Ani'?
(b)What do we try to prove from here?
(c)How do we refute the proof?
3)
(a)The Beraisa says that if a woman undertakes Nezirus, and the husband hears her and declares 'va'Ani' - he can no longer annul her Neder.
(b)We try to prove from here - that once a man upholds the Neder of his wife or daughter (even for an hour), it is permanently upheld; otherwise, why does the Tana not permit him to annul the Neder after an hour?
(c)We refute the proof however - on the grounds that 'va'Ani' implies that he intends to uphold the Neder permanently, more than 'Kiyem Lechi', which implies no more than a temporary Kiyum.
4)
(a)Our Mishnah discusses the differences between a father and an Arus with regard to Hafarah. In which way is the power of ...
1. ... a father stronger than that of an Arus?
2. ... an Arus stronger than that of the father
(b)From where do we learn that when the Arus' father dies, the Arus is not permitted to annul her Nedarim on his own?
(c)What Hekesh does Rabah learn from the Pasuk (in Matos) "v'Im Hayo Siheyeh l'Ish, u'Nedarehah Alehah"?
(d)Why can this Derashah not be confined to the Nedarim that the girl made before she became betrothed?
4)
(a)Our Mishnah discusses the differences between a father and an Arus with regard to Hafarah. The power of ...
1. ... a father is stronger than that of an Arus - inasmuch as, when the Arus dies, he is able to annul his daughter's Nedarim on his own; whereas in the reverse case, the Arus is not.
2. ... an Arus is stronger than that of a father - inasmuch as he is able to annul the Nedarim of his betrothed even after she becomes a Bogeres, whereas a father cannot.
(b)We learn that when the Arus' father dies, the Arus is not permitted to annul her Nedarim on his own - from the Pasuk "bi'Ne'urehah Beis Avihah", which teaches that a Na'arah does not leave her father's jurisdiction (as long as she is not married).
(c)Rabah learns from the Pasuk (in Matos) "v'Im Hayo Sihyeh l'Ish, u'Nedarehah Alehah" - that the Torah compares the period prior to the second betrothal to the period prior to the first (when the father may annul his daughter's Nedarim on his own), permitting him to do so even after the termination of the first betrothal.
(d)This Derashah cannot be confined to those Nedarim which the girl made before she became betrothed - because those Nedarim we already know from the Pasuk "bi'Ne'ureheh Beis Avihah".
70b----------------------------------------70b
5)
(a)In which case will the father not be permitted to annul his daughter's Nedarim on his own after the Arus' death?
5)
(a)The father will not be permitted to annul his daughter's Nedarim on his own after the Arus has divorced her - once she becomes betrothed a second time (in which case he can only annul her Nedarim in conjunction with the second Arus, as we shall see later).
6)
(a)We learned in our Mishnah that the power of the Arus is stronger than that of the father, inasmuch as he is able to annul the Nedarim of his betrothed even after she becomes a Bogeres. Why can this not refer to a case where the Arus betrothed her when she was a Na'arah and she became a Bogeres later?
(b)What is the problem with establishing our Mishnah when the Arus betrothed her when she was already a Bogeres?
(c)What is wrong with the Mishnah later 'Bogeres she'Shahasah Sheneim-Asar Chodesh ... Yafer'?
(d)So how do we amend the Mishnah to read?
6)
(a)We learned in our Mishnah that the power of the Arus is stronger than that of the father, inasmuch as he is able to annul the Nedarim of his betrothed even after she becomes a Bogeres. This cannot refer to a case where the Arus betrothed her when she was a Na'arah and she became a Bogeres later - because (bearing in mind that her father's death and Bagrus take her out of her father's domain) if, in spite of that, her father's death does not place her under the Arus' jurisdiction (as regards Nedarim), why should Bagrus be able to do so?
(b)The problem with establishing our Mishnah when he betrothed when she was a Bogeres - is that we already know that from a Mishnah later (as we shall now see).
(c)What is wrong with the Mishnah 'Bogeres she'Shahasah Sheneim-Asar Chodesh ... Yafer' - is that (with the exception of the rare case when the betrothal took place on the day when she became a Bogeres), it is not after twelve months that the Arusah can annul her Nedarim, but after thirty days.
(d)So we amend the Mishnah to read 'Bogeres v'she'Shahasah Sheneim-Asar Chodesh ... '.
7)
(a)The problem of two Mishnahs telling us that an Arus is able to annul the Nedarim of his Arusah on his own, we resolve initially - by establishing our Mishnah as being Dafka, whereas the Mishnah later mentions the case for an ulterior reason. Which reason?
(b)Actually, the Mishnah later is as necessary as our's. Why is that?
(c)Then what do we really mean when we say that it is 'Lav Dafka'?
(d)According to the second answer, it is the Mishnah later that is Dafka. Why does the Tana then mention the case of Bogeres in our Mishnah?
7)
(a)The problem of two Mishnahs telling us that an Arus is able to annul the Nedarim of his Arusah on his own, we resolve initially by establishing our Mishnah as being Dafka, whereas the Mishnah later mentions the case - to teach us the Machlokes between Rebbi Eliezer and the Chachamim (as to whether an Arus can annul the Nedarim of an Arusah or not).
(b)Actually, the Mishnah later is as necessary as ours - seeing as the Machlokes there (in conjunction with our Mishnah) creates the corollary of 'Machlokes v'Achar-Kach Stam'.
(c)So when we say that it is 'Lav Dafka' - we mean that the Tana specifically placed our Mishnah first (and then the Mishnah which contains the Machlokes between Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabanan), to teach us that it (our Mishnah) is not Halachah (because of the principle 'Stam v'Achar-Kach Machlokes, Ein Halachah ki'Stam').
(d)According to the second answer, it is the Mishnah later that is Dafka - and the Tana mentioned the case of Bogeres in our's only because, having stated in the Reisha 'Yafeh Ko'ach ha'Av mi'Ko'ach he'Arus', he wanted to state the reverse case of 'Yafeh Ko'ach he'Arus mi'Ko'ach ha'Av (as is the way of Tana'im), despite the fact that this opinion is not Halachah.
