1)
(a)Rav Sheshes proves that an O'nes who sends a Sheli'ach to bring the Pesach on his behalf, is not Yotzei, from Rebbi Akiva. What does Rebbi Akiva say in a Beraisa with regard to the fact that the Torah compares Tamei and Derech Rechokah?
(b)How does Rav Nachman refute this proof?
1)
(a)Rebbi Akiva says in a Beraisa that in the same way as someone who is Tamei could have brought the Pesach through a Sheli'ach, only the Torah forbade it, so too, did the Torah forbid a Derech Rechokah to send his Pesach through a Sheli'ach, even though he could have otherwise have done so.
(b)Rav Nachman argues that that may be the opinion of Rebbi Akiva, who holds 'Ein Shochtin v'Zorkin Al Tamei Sheretz', but that he holds like the Tana'im who hold 'Shochtin v'Zorkin'. Consequently, both a Tamei Sheretz and a Derech Rechokah, who will be able to eat the Pesach, may send it through a Sheli'ach.
2)
(a)The Tana of the Beraisa explains that the Torah needs to obligate specifically Derech Rechokah (as an example of O'nes), to bring the Pesach Sheni, to teach us that he is Patur from Kares (which Meizid is not). What is the proof that the Tana of this Beraisa holds like Rav Nachman in the previous Sugya?
(b)How do we reconcile the Beraisa which lists Nidos and Zavos among those who are obligated to bring the Pesach Sheni, with the Beraisa which lists only Zavin and Bo'alei Nidos, but not Zavos and Nidos?
2)
(a)The Tana of the Beraisa explains that the Torah needs to obligate specifically Derech Rechokah (as an example of O'nes), to bring the Pesach Sheni, so as to teach us that he is Patur from Kares (which Meizid is not). Had he held like Rav Sheshes, then he should have said that the Torah needs to obligate Derech Rechokah, to inform us that even if he sent his Pesach through a Sheli'ach, he is not Yotzei, and remains Chayav to bring the Pesach Sheni.
(b)The author of the Beraisa which lists Nidos and Zavos among those who are obligated to bring the Pesach Sheni - is Rebbi Yosi, who holds that women are obligated to bring the Pesach Sheni; whereas the author of the Beraisa which lists only Zavin and Bo'alei Nidos, but not Zavos and Nidos - is Rebbi Yehudah or Rebbi Shimon, neither of whom obligate a woman to bring a Pesach Sheni.
3)
(a)'Chayav Kares Al ha'Rishon, v'Chayav Kares Al ha'Sheni, Divrei Rebbi'. This means that someone who is Meizid on either the Pesach Rishon or the Pesach Sheni and Shogeg on the other, is Chayav Kares. What is the other ramification of Rebbi's statement?
(b)It is obvious why it cannot mean that one is Chayav Kares twice. But why can it not mean that someone who negates both Pesachim, is obligated to bring two Chata'os?
(c)Rav Nasan holds that the Chiyuv Kares is confined to Pesach Rishon, but not to Pesach Sheni. What does Rebbi Chananya ben Akavya say?
3)
(a)'Chayav Kares Al ha'Rishon, v'Chayav Kares Al ha'Sheni, Divrei Rebbi' could mean that someone who is Meizid on either the Pesach Rishon or the Pesach Sheni and Shogeg on the other, is Chayav Kares, and it could also mean that if a non-Jew converted between Pesach Rishon and Pesach Sheni, he is obligated to bring the Pesach Sheni.
(b)In cannot however mean, that someone who negates both Pesachim, is obligated to bring two Chata'os - because Pesach, like Milah, is a Mitzvas Aseh, and, as such, it is not subject to Chatas (since the Torah writes in Vayikra "Asher Lo Se'asenah" - but not for an Aseh.)
(c)Rebbi Chananya ben Akavya says that even for transgressing the Pesach Rishon, one is not Chayav Kares, unless he failed to bring the Pesach Sheni as well.
4)
(a)Rebbi and Rebbi Nasan argue over whether a convert who converted or a Katan who became a Gadol between the two Pesachim, is obligated to bring the Pesach Sheni or not. What is the basis of their Machlokes?
(b)What is the basis of Rebbi Chananya ben Akavya's opinion (in 3c)?
4)
(a)According to Rebbi, Pesach Sheni is an independent Yom-Tov - consequently, a non-Jew who converted between Pesach Rishon and Pesach Sheni, will be Chayav to bring Pesach Sheni. Whereas according to Rebbi Nasan, Pesach Sheni is only a supplement to Pesach Rishon; consequently, that convert, who was not obligated to bring the Pesach Rishon, is not obligated to bring the Pesach Sheni either.
(b)Rebbi Chananya ben Akavya holds that the Pesach Sheni comes to rectify not having brought the Pesach Rishon.
5)
(a)The Pasuk in Beha'aloscha says "v'ha'Ish Asher Hu Tahor, u'va'Derech Lo Hayah, v'Chadal La'asos ha'Pesach, v'Nichresah ... Ki Korban Hash-m Lo Hikriv". How does Rebbi explain ...
1. ... the word "Ki"?
2. ... the conclusion of the Pasuk - "Chet'o Yisa ha'Ish Hahu"? What does he learn from the Gezeirah Shavah from "v'Nasa Chet'o" in Beha'aloscha"?
(b)Rebbi Nasan translates the word "Ki Korban Hash-m Lo Hikriv b'Mo'ado" in this Pasuk as 'because'. How does he ...
1. ... explain the rest of the phrase?
2. ... explain the Gezeirah Shavah "Chet'o Yisa" "v'Nasa Chet'o" (by Megadef es Hash-m - seeing as we already know the Chiyuv Kares by Pesach Rishon)?
(c)How does Rebbi Chananya ben Akavya translate "Ki" and how does he explain the Pasuk "v'Chadal La'sos ha'Pesach v'Nichresah, Ki Korban Hash-m Lo Hikriv b'Mo'ado"?
(d)How does he explain "Chet'o Yisa ha'Ish Hahu"?
5)
(a)Rebbi explains ...
1. ... "Ki Korban Hash-m Lo Hikriv" - to mean "or he did not bring the Korban ... on Pesach Sheni".
2. ... the conclusion of the Pasuk - "Chet'o Yisa ha'Ish Hahu" - to mean that he is Chayav Kares. He learns that from "v'Nasa Chet'o" written by the case of 'Megadef es Hashem', which he takes to mean someone who curses Hash-m (who we already know, receives Kares).
(b)According to Rebbi Nasan ...
1. ... "Ki Korban Hash-m Lo Hikriv b'Mo'ado" - means 'because he did not bring the Pesach Rishon.
2. ... the Gezeirah Shavah "Chet'o Yisa" "v'Nasa Chet'o" - does not come to learn the Chiyuv Kares by Pesach from the Megadef, but the Megadef from Pesach, since, according to him, Megadef does not mean to curse Hash-m, but to sing to Avodah-Zarah, whose punishment we would not know if not for this Gezeirah Shavah.
(c)Rebbi Chananya ben Akavyah translates "Ki" as 'if'. He explains the Pasuk: "v'Chadal La'asos ha'Pesach (Rishon) v'Nichresah, Ki (if) Korban Hash-m Lo Hikriv b'Mo'ado (on Pesach Sheni)".
(d)He explains "Chet'o Yisa ha'Ish Hahu" - to sentence the Megadef to Kares (like Rebbi Nasan).
93b----------------------------------------93b
6)
(a)It is obvious that someone who deliberately fails to bring both Pesachim is Chayav Kares; by mistake, that he is Patur. What will each of the three Tana'im hold if he was ...
1. ... Meizid by the Rishon, and Shogeg by the Sheni?
2. ... Shogeg by the Rishon and Meizid by the Sheni?
6)
(a)Someone who was ...
1. ... Meizid by the Rishon, and Shogeg by the Sheni - will be Chayav according to Rebbi and Rebbi Nasan, and Patur according to Rebbi Chananya ben Akavya.
2. ... Shogeg by the Rishon and Meizid by the Sheni - will be Chayav according to Rebbi, and Patur according to Rebbi Nasan and Chananya ben Akavya.
7)
(a)Rebbi Akiva says that Derech Rechokah refers to someone who has not reached Modi'in or the equivalent distance from Yerushalayim when the time of Shechitas ha'Pesach arrives. How far away is Modi'in from Yerushalayim?
(b)What does Rebbi Eliezer hold?
(c)How does Rebbi Yosi prove Rebbi Eliezer right from the dot on the 'Hey' of Rechokah?
7)
(a)Modi'in is fifteen Mil (approximately fifteen kilometers) from Yerushalayim).
(b)Rebbi Eliezer holds that Derech Rechokah incorporates anyone who is outside the threshold of the Azarah during the entire period of the Shechitah.
(c)Rebbi Yosi proves Rebbi Eliezer right from the dot on the Hey of Rechokah - which indicates that one does not need to be really far away, like Rebbi Akiva learns.
8)
(a)Up to which time may one sprinkle the blood of the Korban Pesach (or of any other Korban, for that matter) on the Mizbe'ach?
(b)According to Ula, Modi'in is fifteen Mil away from Yerushalayim. How does the Gemara describe the significance of this statement with regard to our Mishnah?
(c)What does the Gemara prove from the Pasuk in Vayeira "ha'Shemesh Yatz'a Al ha'Aretz, v'Lot Ba Tzo'arah", and how does it prove it?
8)
(a)The blood of the Korban Pesach (or of any other Korban, for that matter) may be sprinkled on the Mizbe'ach up to sunset, after which it becomes Nosar.
(b)A person walks ten Parsah (forty Mil) from dawn-break until sunset. Detract five Milin from dawn-break until sunrise (according to the Gemara's current contention), and five Milin from sunset until nightfall, leaving thirty Mil from sunrise until sunset - fifteen from sunrise until mid-day, and fifteen Mil from mid-day until sunset (the distance that renders a person a Derech Rechokah, according to Rebbi Akiva).
(c)The Gemara proves from the Pasuk in Vayeira "ha'Shemesh Yatz'a Al ha'Aretz, v'Lot Ba Tzo'arah" that from dawn-break until sunrise lasts five Milin (ninety minutes walking distance) - because that is the distance from Sedom to Tzo'ar (according to Rebbi Chanina's testimony), and the period of time that the Torah mentions there, is from dawn-break until sunrise.
9)
(a)Ula learns that Derech Rechokah refers to someone who was unable to reach Yerushalayim until the termination of the time of Shechitah i.e. sunset (as we explained earlier). What does Rav Yehudah say?
(b)How does Ula reconcile his opinion here with the fact that he said 'Shochtin v'Zorkin Al Tamei Sheretz', even though he cannot arrive during the time of Shechitah?
(c)And how do he reconcile Rav Yehudah's opinion here with the fact that Rav Yehudah himself holds 'Ein Shochtin v'Zorkin Al Tamei Sheretz', even though he is able to arrive during the time of Shechitah?
(d)How does Rav Yehudah learn from the Pasuk "Ish Ish Ki Yihye Tamei la'Nefesh" that 'Ein Shochtin v'Zorkin al Tamei Sheretz'?
9)
(a)According to Rav Yehudah, Derech Rechokah refers to anyone who is unable to arrive in Yerushalayim before the termination of the time of eating the Pesach (i.e. by the morning according to Rebbi Akiva, or by mid-night according to Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah).
(b)Although Ula exempts a Derech Rechokah who is unable to get to the Azarah by the end of the period of Shechitah, that is because the Torah connected them accordingly, when it exempted a Derech Rechokah from bringing the Korban Pesach; but Tum'ah is different: there, the Torah exempted someone who is Tamei from bringing the Pesach, not because of the preparation involved, but because a Tamei person cannot eat it. Consequently, as long as he will be able to arrive (i.e. in a state of Taharah) in time to eat the Pesach, his Korban is valid - even though he was unable to enter the Azarah during the time of Shechitah.
(c)Although Rav Yehudah permits a Derech Rechokah to eat the Korban Pesach, even though he is only able to arrive in time for the eating of the Pesach, Tum'ah is different, because the Torah specifically rejects him, when it writes "Ish Ish Ki Yihye Tamei la'Nefesh ... v'Asah Pesach la'Hashem ... ba'Chodesh ha'Sheni".
(d)Who says that the Pasuk "Ish Ish Ki Yihye Tamei la'Nefesh" does not incorporate someone whose seventh day fell on Erev Pesach? Yet the Torah requires him to bring the Pesach Sheni (like the opinion of Rav above 90b.). This is Rav Yehudah's proof for 'Ein Shochtin v'Zorkin Al Tamei Sheretz'.