1)

(a)According to Rabah, Merchavyah, is one word. What does he hold with regard to Haleluyah, Kesyah and Yedidyah?

(b)We do not know what Rav Chisda Amar Rebbi Yochanan holds by Merchavyah. What does he hold by Haleluyah, Kesyah and Yedidyah?

(c)According to Rav, Kesyah and Yedidyah are one word, Merchavyah is not. What are the ramifications of this statement?

(d)What does the Gemara prove from the testimony of Rav (that Rebbi Chiya wrote 'Halelu' on one line, and 'Kah' on the other)?

1)

(a)According to Rabah, only Merchavyah is one word - Haleluyah, Kesyah and Yedidyah are two.

(b)We do not know what Rav Chisda Amar Rebbi Yochanan holds by Merchavyah - Haleluyah, Kesyah and Yedidyah according to him too, are two words.

(c)According to Rav, Kesyah and Yedidyah are one word - which means that the suffix of 'yah' may not be written on another line and that it has no sanctity.

(d)The Gemara proves from the testimony of Rav (that Rebbi Chiya wrote 'Halelu' on one line, and 'Kah' on the other) - that Kah is a Holy word.

2)

(a)How does Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi interpret 'Haleluyah'?

(b)How many expressions of praise does he list in Tehilim?

(c)Which is the greatest of them all, and how does that clash with what he just said (in a.)?

2)

(a)Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi interprets 'Haleluyah' - as 'Praise Him with many praises'.

(b)He lists ten expressions of praise in Tehilim (Nitzu'ach, Nigun, Maskil, Mizmor, Shir, Ashrei, Tehilah, Tefilah, Hoda'ah and Halelu-Kah).

(c)The greatest of them all, he says, is Halelu-Kah, since it incorporates the Name of Hash-m and His praise. This clashes with what his previous statement, which does not consider Haleluyah to be a Name of Hash-m.

3)

(a)According to Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel, who composed Hallel, and when should it be said?

(b)How does Rebbi Meir explain the Pasuk in Tehilim "Kalu Tefilos David ben Yishai"?

(c)For which two reasons did Rebbi Yosi prefer the explanation of his son Rebbi Elazar (who attributed Hallel to Moshe and the Bnei Yisrael after they were saved by the Yam-Suf) to that of his contemporaries (who attributed it to David Hamelech)?

(d)Why would it have made no sense to compose Hallel at a time when the image of Michah was being publicly worshipped?

3)

(a)According to Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel, it was the prophets in Yisrael who composed Hallel - to be recited on every Yom-Tov, and whenever they are delivered from a calamity.

(b)Rebbi Meir explains the Pasuk in Tehilim "Kalu Tefilos David ben Yishai" to mean 'Kol Eilu Tefilos David ben Yishai' - to teach us that David himself said all the prayers (though not necessarily the praises) in Hallel.

(c)Rebbi Yosi preferred the explanation of his son Rebbi Elazar (who attributed Hallel to Moshe and the Bnei Yisrael after they were saved by the Yam-Suf) to that of his contemporaries (who attributed it to David Hamelech) - firstly, because it is unlikely that Yisrael would have Shechted their Pesachim and taken their Lulavim year after year, without reciting Hallel, and secondly, because how can David ha'Melech have composed Hallel at a time when the image of Michah was publicly being worshipped?

(d)It have made no sense to compose Hallel at a time when the image of Michah was being publicly worshipped - because of the phrase "Kemohem Yihyu Oseihem" (those who make them will be like them) which is written in Hallel itself.

4)

(a)According to Rebbi Eliezer, all the praises of Hash-m said by David Hamelech in Tehilim are personal; according to Rebbi Yehoshua, they are said in the name of Klal Yisrael. What compromise do the Chachamim make?

(b)'Nitzu'ach' and 'Nigun' refer to the future, "Maskil" means that David said it through an interpreter. What is the difference between "l'David Mizmor" and "Mizmor l'David"?

(c)What do we learn from here?

(d)Other Tana'im attribute Hallel to Yehoshua, Devorah and Barak, Chizkiyah, Chananya, Mishael and Azaryah and to Mordechai and Esther (always together with Yisrael). They all agree though, that when Yisrael said "Lo Lanu Hash-m", Hash-m gave them the same reply. What was it?

4)

(a)According to Rebbi Eliezer, all the praises of Hash-m said by David Hamelech in Tehilim are personal; according to Rebbi Yehoshua, they are said in the name of Klal Yisrael. The Chachamim make a compromise: those chapters that are written in the singular, they explain, are personal, whereas those that are in the plural, are said in the name of Klal Yisrael.

(b)"l'David Mizmor" implies that the Shechinah rested on David Hamelech before he sang Shirah, and "Mizmor l'David", the reverse.

(c)We learn from here - that the Shechinah only rests on a person through Simchah shel Mitzvah, not through laziness, sadness, laughter, lightheadedness or time-wasting.

(d)Whether we attribute Hallel to Yehoshua, Devorah and Barak, Chizkiyah, Chananya, Mishael and Azaryah or to Mordechai and Esther - Hash-m replied "Lema'ni Lema'ni E'eseh" ('for My sake, for My sake I will do it') - Yeshayah.

5)

(a)According to Rav Chisda, Haleluyah marks the end of a chapter; according to Rabah bar Rav Huna, it marks the beginning. About which kind of chapter is there no dispute?

(b)In the Tehilim of Rav Chanin bar Rav, 'Haleluyah' was always marked as the middle of the chapter. Why was that?

(c)There are three paragraphs where even Rav Chisda agrees, that the Haleluyah that follows is the first word in the following chapter and not the last word in the previous one. One of them is a very famous Kapitel. Which one is it?

5)

(a)According to Rav Chisda, Haleluyah marks the end of a chapter; according to Rabah bar Rav Huna, it marks the beginning. Their dispute however, is restricted to where there is one Haleluyah between one chapter and the next; where there are two, both agree that the first Haleluyah refers to the former chapter, and the second, to the other.

(b)In the Tehilim of Rav Chanin bar Rav, 'Haleluyah' was always marked as the middle of the chapter - because he was uncertain whether it marked the beginning of the second chapter or the end of the first.

(c)There are three paragraphs where even Rav Chisda agrees, that the Haleluyah that follows is the first word in the following chapter and not the last word in the previous one. The most famous of these is undoubtedly Kapitel (chapter) 145, ('Tehilah l'David') which ends with the Pasuk "Tehilas Hash-m ... Le'olam Va'ed". The next word is "Haleluyah (Halleli Nafshi es Hash-m").

117b----------------------------------------117b

6)

(a)According to one Beraisa in Beis Shamai, Magid concludes with the words "Em ha'Banim Semeichah", and according to another, with "b'Tzeis Yisrael". In light of the previous Sugya, how do we initially attempt to establish the Machlokes?

(b)How does Rav Chisda (according to whom 'Haleluyah' is the end of the paragraph) explain the first Beraisa?

(c)What is the difficulty with this explanation?

(d)How does Rabah bar Rav Huna (who holds that 'Haleluyah' is the beginning of the next paragraph) explain the second Beraisa, and what is difficult with that?

6)

(a)Initially, we try to explain that the Beraisa in Beis Shamai, which states the final words of Magid "Eim ha'Banim Semeichah" holds that Haleluyah is the first word in the next chapter, and the Beraisa which states the final phrase as "b'Tzeis Yisrael", holds that it is the last word in the current one.

(b)Rav Chisda (according to whom 'Haleluyah' is the end of the paragraph) explains that the first Beraisa holds 'Ad v'Ad bi'Ch'lal' (and had the Tana said 'until b'Tzeis Yisrael' - like the second Tana - we would have thought that 'be'Tzeis Yisrael' is part of the first Berachah.

(c)This explanation however, is extremely difficult - because if he holds that Haleluyah is the end of the chapter and 'Ad v'Ad bi'Ch'lal', then why did the Tana not say 'until Haleluyah'!

(d)Rabah bar Rav Huna (who holds that 'Haleluyah' is the beginning of the next paragraph) explains that the second Beraisa holds 'Ad v'Lo Ad bi'Ch'lal'. Consequently, the Tana could not have said until "Eim ha'Banim Semeichah". However, exactly the same Kashya as we asked on Rav Chisda applies here, too. Why did the Tana not say 'until Haleluyah'?

7)

(a)The Berachah of Ge'ulah after the Shema and after the Hagadah is 'Ga'al Yisrael'. Why is that of Tefilah 'Go'el Yisrael'?

(b)Why is the text of a Berachah - 'Asher Kideshanu b'Mitzvosav' ... , whereas in Tefilah we say 'Kadesheinu b'Mitzvosecha'?

(c)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Shmuel "v'Asisi Lecha Shem Gadol Keshem ha'Gedolim Asher ba'Aretz"?

(d)Why do we conclude the Berachah in Tefilah 'Matzmi'ach Keren Yeshu'ah', rather than 'Magen David' (two reasons)?

7)

(a)The Berachah of Ge'ulah after the Shema and after the Hagadah is 'Ga'al Yisrael' (in the past tense), that of Tefilah, 'Go'el Yisrael', (in the present) and not 'Ga'al Yisrael - because we are praying for the future, and the past tense is inappropriate).

(b)The same answer applies here as we answered in the previous question - 'Kidshanu' is the past tense, and has no place in Tefilah. It is however, appropriate in Kidush, where we thank Hash-m for what He did in the past.

(c)We learn from the Pasuk "v'Asisi Lecha Shem Gadol Keshem ha'Gedolim Asher ba'Aretz" - that in some way, David is considered the fourth of the Avos, and so we say one of the Berachos of the Haftarah ends 'Magen David' (just like 'Magen Avraham' concludes the first Berachah of Tefilah.

(d)We conclude the Berachah in Tefilah 'Matzmi'ach Keren Yeshu'ah' - because it is a prayer for mercy and is more suitable in Tefilah than 'Magen David'. Alternatively, having already concluded one Berachah 'Magen Avraham', we cannot conclude another in the same way - because we do not conclude two Berachos in similar fashion.

8)

(a)What do we learn from the Gezeirah Shavah "Lema'an Tizkor es Yom Tzeischa me'Eretz Mitzrayim" (Re'eh) and "Zachor es Yom ha'Shabbos l'Kadesho" (Yisro)?

(b)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Lech Lecha ...

1. ... "v'E'escha l'Goy Gadol"?

2. ... "va'Avarechecha"?

3. ... "va'Agadlah Shemecha"?

4. ... "v'Heyeh Berachah"?

8)

(a)We learn from the Gezeirah Shavah "Lema'an Tizkor es Yom Tzeischa me'Eretz Mitzrayim" and "Zachor es Yom ha'Shabbos l'Kadesho" - that one should mention Yetzi'as Mitzrayim in Kidush (according to the Rashbam this also extends to the Berachah of 'Mekadesh Yisrael' in Tefilah, though this is not the prevalent Minhag). And we learn Kidush on Yom-Tov from a 'Mah Matzinu' from Shabbos.

(b)We learn from ...

1. ... "v'E'escha l'Goy Gadol" - to say 'Elokei Avraham'.

2. ... "va'Avarechecha" - to say 'Elokei Yitzchak'.

3. ... "va'Agadlah Shemecha" - to say 'Elokei Yakov'.

4. ... "v'Heyeh Berachah" - that the Berachah concludes 'Magen Avraham' (exclusively).

9)

(a)Why, according to the Elders of Pumbedisa, does one conclude the Berachah ...

1. ... on Shabbos - 'Mekadesh ha'Shabbos', both in Kidush and in Tefilah?

2. ... on Yom-Tov - 'Mekadesh Yisrael v'ha'Zemanim'?

(b)Rava agrees with this distinction by Kidush, but disagrees with it by Tefilah. How does one conclude the Berachah of Tefilah, in his opinion, and why the difference?

(c)On what grounds does the Gemara rule like the Sabi d'Pumbedisa?

(d)How then, does Rava justify his opinion?

9)

(a)According to the Elders of Pumbedisa, one concludes the Berachah ...

1. ... on Shabbos - 'Mekadesh ha'Shabbos', both in Kidush and in Tefilah - because Shabbos is fixed (by Hash-m).

2. ... on Yom-Tov - 'Mekadesh Yisrael v'ha'Zemanim' - because it is Yisrael who (due to the fact that it is they who determine whether Rosh Chodesh is on the thirtieth of the month or on the thirty-first).

(b)Rava maintains that the Berachah of Tefilah - both on Shabbos and on Yom-Tov, concludes 'Mekadesh Yisrael' - in deference to Yisrael; whereas Kidush, which is recited privately, he agrees with the Elders of Pumbedisa.

(c)The Gemara rules like the Sabi d'Pumbedisa - because it is possible to Daven privately (even though it may not be the ideal thing to do), and to recite Kidush publicly.

(d)Rava justifies his opinion because, he says, we go after the norm. which is Tefilah b'Rabim, and Kidush b'Yachid.

10)

(a)What does one recite over ...

1. ... the third Kos at the Seder?

2. ... the fourth Kos?

(b)Why may one not drink between the third and fourth Kosos?

(c)Then why may one drink between ...

1. ... the second and third Kos?

2. ... the first and second Kos?

10)

(a)Over ...

1. ... the third Kos at the Seder - one recites Birchas ha'Mazon.

2. ... the fourth Kos - one recites Hallel. (Note: Regarding the fifth Kos, see Rosh, Siman 33.)

(b)One may not drink between the third and fourth Kosos - because one may become drunk and be unable to recite Hallel.

(c)One may however, drink between ...

1. ... the second and third Kos - because wine drunk during the meal does not cause drunkenness.

2. ... the first and second Kos - for the same reason (it is only wine after the meal that causes drunkenness). Note: according to others, the reason for the prohibition of drinking between the third and fourth cups is so that the taste of the Matzah remains in one's mouth (see Tosfos DH 'Revi'i'. The Rosh in Siman 33, quotes Rav Yosef Tuv Ilem, who forbids drinking wine even after the fourth Kos - in spite of the indications from both the Bavli and the Yerushalmi that it is permitted. The reason for this, says the Maharam me'Rottenberg, is on account of the Tosefta, which obligates everyone to remain awake throughout the night to learn the Hilchos Pesach, and to relate the miracles of the Exodus from Egypt. Drinking wine causes drunkenness, and makes this difficult. Yet they instituted the fourth Kos, despite this Tosefta, because of the hint in the Pasuk - "v'Lakachti Eschem" - the fourth of the expressions of redemption.)

11)

(a)Is there a proof from our Mishnah that Birchas ha'Mazon requires a Kos?

11)

(a)Although it appears from our Mishnah that Birchas ha'Mazon requires a Kos, it may well be that it doesn't; nevertheless, Chazal fixed the third Kos over Birchas ha'Mazon, in order to perform a Mitzvah by each Kos (Kidush, Hagadah, Birchas ha'Mazon and Hallel).

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