1)

(a)How does the Beraisa split up the Pasuk in Ki Setzei "Motzei Sefasecha Tishmor" into two Mitzvos?

(b)And what does the Tana learn from ...

1. ... "v'Asisa"?

2. ... "b'Ficha"?

1)

(a)The Beraisa splits up the Pasuk in Ki Setzei "Motzei Sefasecha Tishmor" into two Mitzvos - making "Motzei Sefasecha" an Aseh, and "Tishmor", a Lo Sa'aseh.

(b)The Tana learns from ...

1. ... "v'Asisa" - that Beis-Din actually force someone who is lax to fulfill his Neder, and bring his Korban.

2. ... "b'Ficha" - that Tzedakah is incorporated in the Din of 'Bal Te'achar'.

2)

(a)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra ...

1. ... "Yakriv Oso"?

2. ... "li'Retzono"? How do we reconcile these two seemingly contradictory concepts?

(b)Why do we need Pesukim for an Aseh and a Lo Sa'aseh, as well as for issuing Beis-din with the right to enforce the Mitzvah, when we already know them from "u'Vasa Shamah v'Heveisem Shamah" and "Lo Se'achar Leshalmo"and "Yakriv" respectively?

(c)Why do we need a Pasuk for ...

1. ... someone who has separated his obligation, even though we already have a Pasuk for someone who has promised but not yet separated it?

2. ... someone who has not yet separated his obligation, even though we already have a Pasuk for someone who has?

(d)Both Pesukim include a Nedavah. How is it possible for a Nedavah to have been separated but not yet brought? Is that not a Neder?

2)

(a)We learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra ...

1. ... "Yakriv Oso" - that a person who refuses to bring his Korban is made to bring it by force, if need be.

2. ... "li'Retzono" - that he must bring his Korban of his own free-will. Beis-Din will therefore use force if necessary, until the owner agrees to bring it of his own free-will.

(b)Even though we already know the Aseh and the Lo Sa'aseh, as well as Beis-din's right to enforce it from "u'Vasa Shamah v'Heveisem Shamah" and "Lo Se'achar Leshalmo" and "Yakriv" respectively, we nevertheless need the current set of Pesukim ("Motzei Sefasecha ... ") to teach us these things - one for when he promised but was lax in separating the animal; the other, for when he designated it but was lax in bringing it.

(c)We need a Pasuk for ...

1. ... someone who has separated his obligation, even though we already have a Pasuk for someone who has promised but not yet separated it - because, whereas, in the latter case, he has done nothing about fulfilling his promise, in the former case, he has. In fact, having separated his Korban, wherever it is, it is 'in Hash-m's storehouse'.

2. ... someone who has not yet separated his obligation, even though we already have a Pasuk for someone who has - because, whereas in the latter case, we are afraid that he may leave it by him, and come to use it for his own needs, in the former case (where he has done nothing but promise), this fear is non-existent.

(d)Both Pesukim include a Nedavah, which is possible (not in form of an animal that was separated but not yet brought, which would be a Neder but) where he said 'Harei Alai ...' (which is technically a Neder), but adding a stipulation that he does not accept responsibility.

3)

(a)The Beraisa includes someone who undertakes to give Tzedakah in the Isur of Bal Te'acher. Rava rules that one transgresses 'Bal Te'acher' immediately. Why is that?

(b)Why is this not obvious?

3)

(a)The Beraisa includes someone who undertakes to give Tzedakah in the Isur of Bal Te'acher. Rava rules that one transgresses 'Bal Te'acher' immediately - because there are poor people available to whom to give it, and who need it there and then.

(b)This is not obvious at all - because we would otherwise have said that, since 'be'Ficha' is written in the Parshah of Korbanos, it should be subject to three Regalim, like the Korbanos.

4)

(a)After testifying together with Rebbi Yehoshua, that the baby of a Shelamim is brought as a Shelamim, what did Rav Papayas testify concerning a Shelamim and its baby that they brought one Pesach?

(b)Why did that cause a problem according to Rebbi Meir, in whose opinion one transgresses 'Bal Te'acher' already after one Yom-Tov?

(c)Rav Zevid quoting Rava answers that the Beraisa speaks when the baby was sick on Shavu'os. How does Rav Ashi answer the Kashya?

(d)Why did Rava not answer like Rav Ashi?

4)

(a)After testifying together with Rebbi Yehoshua, that the baby of a Shelamim is brought as a Shelamim - Rav Papayas added that they once ate a Shelamim on Pesach and its baby on 'the Chag'.

(b)That caused a problem according to Rebbi Meir, in whose opinion one transgresses 'Bal Te'acher' already after one Yom-Tov - because (assuming 'Chag' to mean Sukos), how could they have delayed bringing the baby until Sukos, as the moment Shavu'os passed, they would have already transgressed an Aseh!?

(c)Rav Zevid quoting Rava answers that the Beraisa speaks when the baby was sick on Shavu'os; whereas according to Rav Ashi - 've'Achalnu Shelamim b'Chag' means on the Chag of Shavu'os.

(d)Rava does not answer like Rav Ashi - because, in his opinion, 'Chag' always means Sukos.

6b----------------------------------------6b

5)

(a)What Chidush does Rava teach us regarding the Lav of 'Bal Te'acher'?

(b)What does the Beraisa say about a Bechor and Kodshim if a year passed without Regalim or Regalim without a year?

(c)Why might this be a Kashya on Rava?

(d)How will Rava answer this? Why does the Tana not mention Rava's Chidush?

5)

(a)Rava teaches us - that, once three Regalim have passed, every day that passes, one transgresses 'Bal Te'acher' again.

(b)The Beraisa says that both as regards a Bechor and as regards other Kodshim - if a year passes without Regalim or Regalim without a year, one transgresses 'Bal Te'acher'.

(c)This might be a Kashya on Rava - due to fact that the Beraisa (which is concerned with finding as many transgressions as possible regarding 'Bal Te'acher') fails to mention that one transgresses every day.

(d)Rava will answer - that the Tana is only concerned with finding as many new Lavin as possible, not with listing those that are repetitive.

6)

(a)Regalim without a year presents no problem (according to any of the opinions on Daf 4). According to which Tana is it equally easy to find a year without Regalim.

(b)We establish the Beraisa even according to the Rabanan of Rebbi Shimon (who require three Regalim in any order), by connecting it with Rebbi. What does Rebbi say with regard to a leap year by the Din of Batei Arei Chomah, which may not be redeemed after a full year has passed?

(c)How does this explain the Beraisa currently under discussion?

(d)What do the Rabanan of Rebbi say? Why will the problem remain, according to them?

6)

(a)Regalim without a year presents no problem (according to any of the opinions on Daf 4). It is equally easy to find a year without Regalim - according to Rebbi Shimon (who requires the three Regalim to have passed in their right order before one transgresses 'Bal Te'acher').

(b)We establish the Beraisa even according to the Rabanan of Rebbi Shimon (who require three Regalim in any order), by connecting it with Rebbi. According to Rebbi (with regard to the sale of a house in a walled city, which becomes permanent after one year) - we count three hundred and sixty five days from the day of the sale, even in a leap-year.

(c)Consequently, it is possible for a year to pass without three Yamim-Tovim, if someone made a Neder immediately after Pesach in a year that preceded a leap-year. Three hundred and sixty five days later, towards the end of Adar Sheni, one year will have passed, but not three Regalim.

(d)According to the Rabanan - one reckons twelve months (in a leap-year, thirteen) from day to day. Consequently, every year must contain three Regalim. So the problem remains according to them -- how can there ever be a year without three Regalim!?

7)

(a)Rav Shemayah (quoting a Beraisa) maintains that Shavuos can fall on the fifth, the sixth or the seventh of Sivan. What will determine on which of these Shavu'os falls?

(b)How do we find a case of a year without Regalim according to the Rabanan of Rebbi (in conjunction with Rav Shemayah's Beraisa)?

7)

(a)Rav Shemayah (quoting a Beraisa) maintains that Shavu'os falls, sometimes on the fifth of Sivan - if both Nisan and Iyar are full months (of thirty days); sometimes on the sixth - if one of them is full and one of them, short (twenty-nine days), and sometimes on the seventh - if both months are short.

(b)According to Rav Shemayah, we have a case of a year without Regalim according to the Rabanan of Rebbi - if one declared a Neder to bring a Korban on the sixth of Sivan in a year when Shavu'os fell on the fifth, and when Shavu'os on the following year fell on the seventh. The year will terminate on the sixth of Sivan, although only two Regalim will have occurred in the course of the year.

8)

(a)Acherim disagree with Rav Shemayah's Tana. What does Acherim say regarding an ordinary year?

(b)What is his reasoning behind this?

(c)How many days are there in a year according to Acherim, and how many weeks?

(d)Why are there always five days between one year and the next in a leap-year?

8)

(a)Acherim disagree with Rav Shemayah's Tana. According to Acherim (who is generally Rebbi Meir) - there are always four days between one Shavu'os and the next or between one Rosh Hashanah and the next ...

(b)... because it is not permitted to change the length of any month: Nisan is always full, Iyar short, Sivan full and Tamuz short ... and so on, until the end of the year.

(c)There are always three hundred and fifty four days in a year according to Acherim - fifty weeks and four days (explaining the four days discrepancy of any given day in the year from one year to the next).

(d)In a leap-year, there are always five days between one year and the next - because Adar Sheni is always lacking (i.e. a twenty-nine day month - four weeks and one day), so one simply adds the one day to the four of an ordinary year.

9)

(a)Rebbi Zeira asks a She'eilah. What might one learn with regard an heir, from ...

1. ... "Ki Sidor Neder"?

2. ... "u'Vasa Shamah v'Heveisem Shamah"?

(b)To resolve this She'eilah, we cite a Beraisa. What does the Tana learn from the word "me'Imach"?

(c)But did the Tana on the previous Daf not need "me'Imach" to incorporate Leket, Shichechah and Pe'ah in the Din of Bal Te'acher?

9)

(a)Rebbi Zeira asks a She'eilah. One might learn from ...

1. ... "Ki Sidor Neder" - that someone who inherits his father's Korban is not subject to 'Bal Te'acher' (since he did not make the vow to bring it).

2. ... "u'Vasa Shamah v'Heveisem Shamah" - that he is ... (because whoever is obligated to go to Yerushalayim, is obligated to bring the Korban, in which case he will therefore transgress the Aseh of 'v'Heveisem Shamah', and presumably the Lav of Bal Te'acher too).

(b)To resolve this She'eilah, we cite a Beraisa that Darshens "me'Imach" - 'Prat l'Yoresh'.

(c)The Tana on the previous Daf not indeed incorporate Leket, Shichechah and Pe'ah in the Din of Bal Te'acher from "me'Imach" - but that was from the basic word "Imach", whereas the current Beraisa precludes Yoresh from the 'Mem'.

10)

(a)Rebbi Zeira also asked whether a woman is included in Bal Te'acher or not. She may not be included because she is Patur from the Mitzvah of Re'iyah. Why, on the other hand, might she be included?

(b)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Re'eh...

1. ... "Kol Zechurcha"?

2. ... "v'Samachta b'Chagecha"?

(c)Abaye was surprised at Rebbi Zeira's She'eilah. Why?

(d)What does Abaye himself say?

10)

(a)Rebbi Zeira also asked whether a woman is included in Bal Te'acher or not. She may well not be included, because she is exempt from the Mitzvah of Re'iyah. On the other hand, she might be included - since she is obligated to participate in the Mitzvah of Simchah.

(b)We learn from the Pasuk ...

1. ... "Kol Zechurcha" - that only men are obligated to fulfill the Mitzvah of Re'iyah (appearing in the Beis Hamikdash), but not women.

2. ... "v'Samachta b'Chagecha" - that in the time of the Beis Hamikdash, there was a Mitzvah to eat the meat of Shelamim on Yom-Tov, in which case, a woman should also be subject to 'Bal Te'acher'.

(c)Abaye was surprised at Rebbi Zeira's She'eilah. If he argues - she is obligated to bring Shalmei Simchah (obligating her to fulfill the Mitzvah of "u'Vasa Shamah"), then it is obvious that she must also uphold the second half of the Pasuk "v'Heveisem Shamah".

(d)Abaye himself disagrees with Rebbi Zeira. According to him, a woman is not obligated to bring Shalmei Simchah; her husband however, is obligated to make her happy (by buying her new clothes for Yom-Tov [see also Tosfos DH 'Ishah']). Consequently - since, according to Abaye, she has neither the Mitzvah of Re'iyah, nor that of Simchah, it is obvious that she is not subject to 'Bal Te'acher'.

11)

(a)According to Abaye, the year in which a Bechor must be brought begins from the moment it is born. What does Rav Acha Bar Yakov say?

(b)In fact, they do not argue. How is this possible?

(c)Even if a Bechor is born blemished, how is it possible to eat it on the day that it is born? Until it has lived for seven days, how do we know that it is not a Nefel?

11)

(a)According to Abaye, the year in which a Bechor must be brought begins from the moment it is born - according to Rav Acha Bar Yakov, it is only from the time that it is fit to be brought on the Mizbe'ach (i.e. the eighth day).

(b)In fact, they do not argue - Abaye is speaking about an animal that is born blemished (see Tosfos DH 'Ha'), which is fit to be eaten the moment it is born; whereas Rav Acha Bar Yakov is speaking about a regular animal (that may not be eaten until the eighth day).

(c)It is possible to eat a Bechor on the day that it is born - if one knows for sure that it was born a full five months after its conception (and is therefore not a still-born baby.

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