1)
(a)According to Rebbi Yishmael, who holds that 'Ein bah Yedi'ah bi'Techilah, ve'Yesh bah Yedi'ah be'Sof' brings a Korban Olah ve'Yored, what does the Sa'ir ha'Na'aseh ba'Chutz atone for?
(b)But do the Se'irei ha'Regalim and the Se'irei Rosh Chodesh not already atone for that?
(c)In that case, what does he learn from the Hekesh of "Mi'levad Chatas ha'Kipurim"?
1)
(a)According to Rebbi Yishmael, who holds that 'Ein bah Yedi'ah bi'Techilah, ve'Yesh bah Yedi'ah be'Sof' brings a Korban Olah ve'Yored, the Sa'ir ha'Na'aseh ba'Chutz atones for - 'she'Ein bah Yedi'ah Lo bi'Techilah ve'Lo be'Sof'.
(b)Granted, the Se'irei ha'Regalim and the Se'irei Rosh Chodesh already atone for that, but Rebbi Shimon holds like Rebbi Meir in this point, that - they all atone for the same thing (a Tum'ah that occurred between one and the other).
(c)And from the Hekesh of "Mi'levad Chatas ha'Kipurim", he learns that - just as the Sa'ir ha'Ha'Penimi only atones for Tum'as Mikdash ve'Kodashav, so too, does the Sa'ir ha'Na'aseh ba'Chutz.
2)
(a)What does Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel learn from the word "la'Hashem" (in the Pasuk in Pinchas [in connection with the Musaf of Rosh Chodesh] "u'Se'ir Izim Echad le'Chatas la'Hashem"), to explain Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah?
(b)We query this however, from Resh Lakish, who already uses this Pasuk for another D'rashah? Which D'rashah?
(c)How do we answer this Kashya (based on the Lashon of "la'Hashem")?
(d)Then how can Resh Lakish make an additional D'rashah?
2)
(a)To explain Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah, Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel learns from the word "la'Hashem" (in the Pasuk in Pinchas [in connection with the Musaf of Rosh Chodesh]"u'Se'ir Izim Echad le'Chatas la'Hashem ") that - the Sa'ir ha'Na'aseh ba'Chutz of Rosh Chodesh (and of the Regalim) atones for a sin that only Hash-m is aware of ('she'Ein bah Yedi'ah Lo bi'Techilah ve'Lo be'Sof').
(b)We query this however, from Resh Lakish, who already Darshens from this Pasuk - Hash-m's request to bring a Korban for Him, to appease the moon for having made it smaller.
(c)We answer this Kashya - by basing our D'rashah on the fact that the Torah writes "la'Hashem" (and not 'al Hashem').
(d)Nevertheless, Resh Lakish is able to make an additional D'rashah - because the Torah writes "la'Hashem" (and not 'Chatas Hashem').
3)
(a)We learn that the Sa'ir Rosh Chodesh does not extend to other sins, from Tana de'bei Rebbi Yishmael. What does Tana de'bei Rebbi Yishmael say? How does he learn this from the Sa'ir ha'Na'aseh ba'Chutz of Yom Kipur (which is mentioned in this Parshah, too)?
(b)Why can we not learn the Se'irei ha'Regalim from ...
1. ... that of Rosh Chodesh?
2. ... that of Yom Kipur?
(c)Then how could we learn the Sa'ir of Rosh Chodesh from that of Yom Kipur? What does 'Giluy Milsa' mean?
3)
(a)We learn that the Sa'ir Rosh Chodesh does not extend to other sins, from Tana de'bei Rebbi Yishmael, who learns it from the Sa'ir ha'Na'aseh ba'Chutz of Yom Kipur (which is mentioned in this Parshah, too) - from a 'Binyan-Av', since both are brought at a fixed time.
(b)We cannot learn the Se'irei ha'Regalim from ...
1. ... that of Rosh Chodesh however - because it is 'Tadir' (more common than they are).
2. ... that of Yom Kipur - because the atonement of Yom-Kipur is excessive (since it atones for all other sins too).
(c)We can nevertheless learn the Sa'ir of Rosh Chodesh from that of Yom Kipur - because its Kaparah is already written (fairly specifically), and it only requires a 'Giluy Milsa' (an indication) to finalize the Limud (unlike the other Se'irei ha'Regalim, whose Kaparah is completely unspecified), and which therefore require a full Limud (and not just a 'Giluy Milsa').
4)
(a)In fact, we learn the Se'irei ha'Regalim from Rebbi Chama b'Rebbi Chanina. What does Rebbi Chama b'Rebbi Chanina mean when he says "Sa'ir", "u'Se'ir"?
(b)Seeing as Rosh Chodesh itself is learned from a 'Binyan-Av' from Yom Kipur, how can we then learn the other Yamim-Tovim from it (in view of the principle 'Ein Lemeidin Lamed min ha'Lameid be'Kodshim')?
4)
(a)In fact, we learn the Se'irei ha'Regalim from Rebbi Chama b'Rebbi Chanina, who says "Sa'ir", "u'Se'ir" by which he means that - since each of the Pesukim (that deals with the Sa'ir of that particular Yom-Tov, begins with "u'Se'ir" (with a 'Vav'), and not just "Se'ir" - we apply the principle 'Vav Mosif al Inyan Rishon' (which is a form of Hekesh), comparing each subsequent Yom-Tov (Pesach, Shavu'os and Rosh Hashanah) to Rosh-Chodesh (presumably, we will learn Succos directly from Yom Kipur, in which case, the following Kashya will not pertain to it).
(b)In spite of the fact that Rosh Chodesh itself is learned from a 'Binyan-Av' from Yom Kipur, (and despite the principle 'Ein Lemeidin Lamed min ha'Lameid be'Kodshim'), we can learn the other Yamim-Tovim from it - because whereas we cannot learn a Hekesh from *a Hekesh* by Kodshim, everyone agrees that we can learn a Hekesh from a Binyan Av.
9b----------------------------------------9b
5)
(a)We ask whether, when Rebbi Yehudah learns from "la'Hashem", that the Se'irei Rosh Chodesh ... atone for 'she'Ein bah Yedi'ah Lo bi'Techilah ve'Lo be'Sof', this also applies to cases which stand to become known. What do we mean by that?
(b)If not, then which Korban will atone for them?
(c)The outcome of the She'eilah is based on a Beraisa. What does the Beraisa say?
5)
(a)We ask whether, when Rebbi Yehudah learns from "la'Hashem" that the Se'irei Rosh Chodesh ... atone for 'she'Ein bah Yedi'ah Lo bi'Techilah ve'Lo be'Sof', this also applies to cases which stand to become known, by which we mean that - witnesses saw him becoming Tamei and entering the Beis-Hamikdash or eating Kodesh.
(b)If not - then the Sa'ir ha'Na'aseh ba'Chutz on Yom Kipur (the Musaf) and Yom Kipur will atone for them.
(c)The outcome of the She'eilah is based on a Beraisa - which specifically lists 'Chet she'Sofo Leida' together with 'Ein bah Yedi'ah Lo bi'Techilah ve'Lo be'Sof'.
6)
(a)According to Rebbi Shimon, the Se'irei Rosh Chodesh atone for a Tahor person who ate a Tamei Korban. And he learns it from the Pasuk in Shemini "ve'Osah Nasan lachem Laseis es Avon ha'Eidah". What is this Pasuk talking about? In which context is it written?
(b)What does Rebbi Shimon then learn from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Avon" "Avon" (from the Pasuk in Tetzaveh [in connection with the Tzitz] "Ve'hayah al Metzach Aharon Ve'nasa Aharon es Avon ha'Kodashim ... ")?
(c)And what does he then learn from the word ...
1. ... "Avon *ha'Eidah*"?
2. ... "*ve'Osah* Nasan lachem"?
(d)What does Rav Ashi learn from the fact that in Shemini, the Torah writes "Avon ha'Eidah", and in Tetzaveh, "Avon ha'Kodashim"? From which letter does he actually learn it?
6)
(a)According to Rebbi Shimon, the Se'irei Rosh Chodesh atone for a Tahor person who ate a Tamei Korban. And he learns it from the Pasuk in Shemini "ve'Osah Nasan lachem Laseis es Avon ha'Eidah". This Pasuk is talking about - the Sa'ir Rosh Chodesh, which Aharon and his sons had not eaten on the eighth day of the Milu'im, following the death of Nadav and Avihu.
(b)Rebbi Shimon then learns from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Avon" "Avon" (from the Pasuk in connection with the Tzitz "Ve'hayah al Metzach Aharon Ve'nasa Aharon es Avon ha'Kodashim ... ") that - the Sa'ir Rosh Chodesh (referred to in the earlier Pasuk), atones for a Tahor person who ate Tamei Kodshim, as we just learned.
(c)And he learns from the word ...
1. ... "Avon *ha'Eidah*" that - it atones for the sinner, and not for the Korban (like the Tzitz does).
2. ... "*ve'Osah* Nasan lachem" that - although we learn the former from the latter with a 'Gezeirah-Shavah', we do not learn the latter from the former (to say that the Tzitz should also atone for the Tahor person who ate Tamei Kodshim).
(d)Rav Ashi learns the two above Dinim - from the extra 'Hey' in the Pasuk "Avon *ha*'Eidah", and in that of "Avon *ha*'Kodashim" (from the former, that the Sa'ir Rosh Chodesh atones only for the person, and from the latter, that the Tzitz atones only for the Kodshim).