1)

(a)We learned in a Beraisa 'Rebbi Kofel Bah Devarim', meaning from 'Ana Hash-m ... ' and onwards. What does 'Rebbi Elazar ben P'rata Mosif Bah Devarim' then mean?

2)

(a)What does Abaye comment on our Mishnah '(Makom she'Nahagu) Levarech, Yevarech'?

(b)And he bases this on a statement by Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel, who rules that Mitzvos require a Berachah O'ver la'Asiyasan. What does 'O'ver la'Asiyasan' mean?

(c)What does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak learn from the Pasuk (in Shmuel) "va'Yaratz Achima'atz ... va'Ya'avor es ha'Kushi", and others from the Pasuk in Michah "va'Ya'avor Malkam Lifneihem, va'Hashem b'Rosham"?

(d)From which Pasuk in the Torah (Parshas Vayeira) does Abaye learn it?

3)

(a)Our Mishnah now discusses the purchase of a Lulav from one's friend in the Shemitah year ('ha'Loke'ach Lulav me'Chavero ... '). What is the correct text?

(b)How must one actually effect the purchase?

(c)What does Rav Huna obligate the Talmid-Chacham to do should the Am ha'Aretz refuse to give him the Esrog free?

(d)Why may one not pay the Am ha'Aretz directly for the Esrog?

4)

(a)Up to how much is one permitted to pay an Am ha'Aretz for his fruit in the Shemitah? Why did Chazal permit even that?

(b)Why specifically three meals?

(c)What does one do if he forgot and paid the Am ha'Aretz more than that?

(d)On what condition does the Beraisa forbid paying an Am ha'Aretz at all for his fruit ('even as little as half an Isar')?

39b----------------------------------------39b

5)

(a)The Mishnah in Shevi'is lists various types of plants that are Patur from Ma'aser (during the other six years) and which one may purchase from anyone in the Shemitah year. Why are they all Patur from Ma'aser?

(b)How do Chazal derive this from the Pasuk in Re'eh "u'Va ha'Levi Ki Ein Lo Chelek v'Nachalah Imach"?

(c)What does the Seifa say about purchasing them from anybody?

(d)Why is that?

6)

(a)What problem does Rav Sheishes now have with the previous Beraisa, which permits the purchase of three meals-worth from an Am ha'Aretz during the Shemitah year, but no more, based on the Seifa of this Mishnah? What can one infer from the latter?

(b)He reconciles the two by establishing the latter 'bi'Chedei Man'? What does this mean?

(c)What does Rabah bar bar Chanah say about that?

(d)What do we prove from the Pasuk in Daniel "va'Yiman Lahem ha'Melech"?

7)

(a)What problem do we have with ...

1. ... our Mishnah, which requires purchasing the Lulav in the Shemitah, but not the Esrog?

2. ... the initial reply, which points out that the Lulav grew in the sixth-year?

(b)How do we solve the problem? What is the basic difference between Lulavim and Esrogim regarding Ma'asros?

(c)What is the source for this distinction? What makes an Esrog different?

(d)On what grounds do we nevertheless query this answer? What do both Rebbi Eliezer and Raban Gamliel (whom we are about to discuss) say with regard to Esrogim in the Shemitah that clashes with it?

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