Mishnah 1
1)
(a)What does the Mishnah say about the grain of Chutz la'Aretz, regarding Chalah?
(b)How does he Darshen this from the Pasuk in Korach (in connection with Chalah) "el ha'Aretz Asher Ani Meivi Eschem Shamah"?
(c)According to Rebbi Eliezer, grain that leaves Eretz Yisrael for Chutz la'Aretz is Chayav Chalah. How does he learn this from the Pasuk there "Vehayah be'Ochlechem mi'Lechem ha'Aretz"?
(d)What does Rebbi Akiva say, based on the Pasuk "Shamah" (that we just quoted)?
(e)Like whom is the Halachah?
1)
(a)The Mishnah rules - that once the grain of Chutz la'Aretz enters Eretz Yisrael, it is Chayav Chalah.
(b)He Darshens this from the Pasuk "el ha'Aretz Asher Ani Meivi Eschem Shamah" - implying that fruit that is in Eretz Yisrael is subject to Chalah, irrespective of where it grew.
(c)According to Rebbi Eliezer, grain from Eretz Yisrael that is taken to Chutz la'Aretz is Chayav Chalah. He learns this from the Pasuk (in connection with Chalah) "Vehayah be'Ochlechem mi'Lechem ha'Aretz" - implying that bread that is made from produce of Eretz Yisrael is Chayav Chalah, wherever one eats it.
(d)Rebbi Akiva extrapolates from the Pasuk "Shamah" (that we just quoted) - that one is only Chayav to separate Chalah in Eretz Yisrael, but not in Chutz la'Aretz.
(e)The Halachah is like - Rebbi Akiva (see Tos. R. Akiva Eiger).
Mishnah 2
2)
(a)The Mishnah discusses earth in a boat that is traveling from Chutz la'Aretz to Eretz Yisrael. Under what circumstances is fruit that is planted in it is subject to Ma'asros and Shevi'is?
(b)What further condition does Rebbi Yehudah require (see Tos. Yom-Tov)?
(c)What does the Tana say about a dough that has been kneaded with fruit-juice or egg-water alone?
(d)Why ought one nevertheless not do this?
(e)And why is one permitted to eat it with Tamei hands (provided they are dry)?
2)
(a)The Mishnah discusses earth in a boat that is traveling from Chutz la'Aretz to Eretz Yisrael. Fruit that is planted in it is subject to Ma'asros and Shevi'is - assuming that there is a hole in the boat that is stopped up with hard clods of earth from Eretz Yisrael.
(b)Rebbi Yehudah requires further - that the boat is dragging along the river bed (see Tos. Yom-Tov and Tiferes Yisrael).
(c)What does the Tana rules that if a dough has been kneaded with fruit-juice or egg-water alone - it is nevertheless subject to Chalah (see Tiferes Yisrael).
(d)Nevertheless, one ought not to do this - because, according to the Yerushalmi, this Mishnah is not Halachah (see Tos. R. Akiva Eiger).
(e)And one is permitted to eat it with Tamei hands (provided they are dry) - because food that has not been Muchshar Lekabeil Tum'ah through one of the seven liquids (see Tiferes Yisrael) is not subject to Tum'ah.
Mishnah 3
3)
(a)What is the problem with separating Chalah naked?
(b)Under what circumstances is a woman then permitted to do so?
(c)Why is there no problem regarding the buttocks?
(d)Then why can't a man do the same thing?
3)
(a)The problem with separating Chalah naked is - that one is not permitted to recite a Berachah.
(b)A woman is permitted to do so however - as long as she does so seated on the floor, with her private parts covered by the ground (see Tiferes Yisrael).
(c)There is no problem regarding the buttocks - since they are not considered Ervah with as far as Berachos are concerned.
(d)A man cannot do the same thing - because inevitably, his private parts will be visible.
4)
(a)The Tana Kama prefers a person who is Tamei and unable to Tovel, to make a few small doughs rather than one big one. Why is that? What constitutes a small dough?
(b)On what grounds does Rebbi Akiva then prefer him to make one large dough?
(c)Like whom is the Halachah?
4)
(a)The Tana Kama prefers a person who is Tamei and is unable to Tovel (see Tos. Yom-Tov) to make a few small doughs (a Kav at a time) rather than one big one (see also Tiferes Yisrael) - to avoid making a dough that is Chayav Chalah, which he will then have to separate be'Tum'ah.
(b)Rebbi Akiva nevertheless prefers him to make one large dough - so as to be able to give part of it to Hash-m (albeit be'Tum'ah).
(c)The Halachah is like the Chachamim.
Mishnah 4
5)
(a)What does the Mishnah say about two separate doughs of a Kav each, which touch each other?
(b)According to Rebbi Eliezer, in which other case will two doughs combine to become Chayav Chalah even without touching?
(c)When separating Chalah from one dough to cover a number of doughs, the doughs must be 'min ha'Mukaf'. What does this mean?
(d)In what way does the Din of 'min ha'Mukaf' differ from the above?
(e)Why does Rebbi Eliezer (later in the Perek) then require the dough in the middle (of less than a k'Beitzah) to touch the two outer ones?
5)
(a)The Mishnah rules - that two separate doughs of a Kav each, which touch each other are Patur from Chalah unless they stick together ('Neshichah' to the extent that if one picks up one of them, a bit of the other one comes away with it).
(b)According to R. Eliezer, two doughs combine to become Chayav Chalah even without Neshichah (see Tos. Yom-Tov) - if, after they have been removed from the oven, they are placed in the same basket (see Tos. Yom-Tov).
(c)When separating Chalah from one dough to cover a number of doughs, the doughs must be 'min ha'Mukaf' - meaning that they must be placed next to each other.
(d)The Din of 'min ha'Mukaf' - inasmuch as the doughs do not even need to touch.
(e)The reason that R. Eliezer (later in the Perek) requires the dough (of less than a k'Beitzah) in the middle to touch the two outer ones - speaks specifically where one of the doughs is Tamei, and if not for the dough in the middle, he would be particular for the two doughs not to touch, in which case they would not combine unless the middle piece of dough was touching them both.
Mishnah 5
6)
(a)What does the Mishnah say about someone who separates Chalah from flour?
(b)What is the source of this ruling?
(c)What must the Kohen then do with it?
(d)Why did the Chachamim not penalize the owner and permit the Kohen to retain it?
6)
(a)The Mishnah rules that if someone separates Chalah from flour - the Chalah is not valid ...
(b)... because the Torah writes "Reishis Arisoseichem" (which means 'the first of your doughs' [but not flour]) .
(c)The Kohen must return it (keeping it constitutes theft [see Tiferes Yisrael]).
(d)The Chachamim did not penalize the owner and permit the Kohen to retain it - because that would cause the owner to think that his dough is Patur from Chalah, when in fact, he remains Chayav to separate Chalah from it (see Tos. Yom-Tov).
7)
(a)What does Rebbi Yehoshua say about the flour that the owner gives to the Kohen, assuming that it comprises the Shi'ur Chalah?
(b)Why is that?
(c)How did the Chachamim try to prove Rebbi Yehoshua wrong?
(d)Rebbi Yehoshua countered that the Talmid-Chacham concerned sinned and received his punishment. What did he mean when he added 've'Tikein la'Acheirim' (see Tos. Yom-Tov)?
7)
(a)According to R. Yehoshua - assuming that the flour the owner gives to the Kohen comprises the Shi'ur Chalah, the latter must separate Chalah from it once he makes a dough out of it, and it remains Asur for Zarim to eat ...
(b)... in case those who saw the initial transaction will think that a Zar is eating Chalah.
(c)The Chachamim tried to prove R. Yehoshua wrong - from the case of Talmid-Chacham Zar who grabbed the flour (that had been given to a Kohen) and ate it (see Tiferes Yisrael).
(d)R. Yehoshua countered that the Talmid-Chacham concerned sinned and duly receive his punishment. When he added 've'Tikein la'Acheirim', he meant - that he now caused others to follow his example, without getting punished since they would sin be'Shogeg (for Halachah, see Tos. Yom-Tov).
Mishnah 6
8)
(a)The Tana gives the Shi'ur of the dough that is subject to Chalah as 'Chameishes Reva'im Kemach'. What does that mean? 'Reva'im' of what?
(b)Is the yeast counted in the Shi'ur?
(c)And how about the Subin (the fine bran) and the Mursan (the course bran)?
(d)Under what condition are they not counted in the Shi'ur (rendering the dough Patur)?
8)
(a)The Tana gives the Shi'ur of the dough that is subject to Chalah as 'Chameishes Reva'im Kemach' - meaning one and a quarter Kabin of flour.
(b)The yeast is counted in the Shi'ur ...
(c)... as is the Subin (the fine bran) and the Mursan (the course bran).
(d)... provided they have not been removed. If they have, and are subsequently returned, the dough remains Patur from Chalah.
9)
(a)What is the source of the above Shi'ur?
(b)How many ...
1. ... Lugin are there in an Eifah?
2. ... Beitzim are there in a Log?
(c)If the Omer in the desert was seven Lugin plus one a fifth Beitzim, what happened to the Shi'ur when they arrived in Yerushalayim?
(d)And what happened when they came to Tzipori?
9)
(a)The source of the above Shi'ur is - the Pasuk "Reishis Arisoseichem", which refers to a portion of Manna in the desert from which they would make their doughs. And the Torah records (in that connection) "ve'ha'Omer Asiris ha'Eifah Hu".
(b)There are ...
1. ... seventy-two Lugin in an Eifah.
2. ... six Beitzim in a Log.
(c)The Omer in the desert was seven Lugin plus one a fifth Beitzim (a tenth of seventy-two Lugin), When they arrived in Yerushalayim - they added a sixth to the size of the Midos, so that this became six Lugin.
(d)And when they came to Tzipori - they added a sixth again, turning the six Lugin into five (which is the five quarters to which the Mishnah is referring, since there are four Lugin in a Kav.
Mishnah 7
10)
(a)How much Chalah is a private person obligated to separate from his dough if he is baking ...
1. ... for himself?
2. ... for his son's wedding?
(b)And how much must a baker who is baking to sell to sell in his shop, separate?
(c)And how about a private woman who is baking to sell to the public?
(d)Under which circumstances, will a private individual need to separate only one forty-eighth?
(e)Why not even on purpose?
10)
(a)A private individual is obligated to separate - one twenty-fourth from his dough, if he is baking ...
1. ... either for himself ...
2. ... or for his son's wedding (because of 'Lo P'lug').
(b)Whereas a baker who is baking to sell to sell in his shop (and who baked larger quantities) must separate - only one forty-eighth ...
(c)... and so does a private woman who is baking to sell to the public (because of 'Lo P'lug'), even though she is baking relatively few loaves.
(d)A private individual will need to separate only one forty-eighth - if the dough became Tamei either inadvertently or by accident ...
(e)... but not on purpose, to prevent the sinner from gaining from his sin.
Mishnah 8
11)
(a)R. Eliezer permits taking Chalah from a Tahor dough to cover a Tamei one. On what grounds might it be forbidden?
(b)How does he prescribe doing it?
(c)What do the Chachamim instruct the owner to do?
(d)Like whom is the Halachah?
11)
(a)R. Eliezer permits taking Chalah from a Tahor dough to cover a Tamei one (even if each one is Chayav Chalah [Tiferes Yisrael]) - in spite of the fear that the two may touch (rendering the Tahor dough, Tamei).
(b)He prescribes doing it - by placing a piece of Tamei (see Tiferes Yisrael and Tos. Yom Tov DH 've'Nosen') dough less than a k'Beitzah (from a dough from which Chalah has also not been taken [see Tos. Yom-Tov) in between the two doughs which touches them both (see Tiferes Yisrael and last answer in Mishnah 4).
(c)According to the Chachamim - the owner must separate from each dough independently.
(d)The Halachah is - like the Chachamim (see Tos. Yom-Tov).
