In what sense was the redemption at night?

Rashi: They were given permission to leave at night.

Midbar Kedmus 10:50: At midnight, the sun shone like during the day. The Zohar says that "v'Laylah ka'Yom Ya'ir ka'Chasheichah ka'Orah" (Tehilim 139:12) refers to Leil Yetzi'as Mitzrayim.

Daf Al ha'Daf: It was night, just it was like day.

Question Why was Egypt hasty at night?

Rashi: Via Makas Bechoros, they were hasty to send Yisrael.

Why did Hash-m need to tell Yisrael 'please'? Leaving with great wealth is for their benefit! Even if you will say that "Na" applies to Moshe, why did Hash-m need to say so? Surely Moshe will fulfill His command!

Ha'Kosev: This request was lowly, to find a pretext to steal from them. First they ask to borrow, and then they keep it via force! It was shameful for Moshe to suggest this to Yisrael. Therefore, He needed to say 'please'. Why did Hash-m command so? Really, it was proper to command Egypt to give to them [as payment for their labor for many years], and if not, Hash-m will kill them, like He killed their firstborns.

Maharsha: The Gemara itself answered - Yisrael would have preferred to leave immediately, without the wealth! Without "Na", they would think that it is for their benefit, and not a command, and they would waive the right to ask.

Rif (on the Ein Yakov): The Egyptians did not know that their wives were Mezanah. At Makas Bechoros, many died who were not thought to be firstborns. Therefore, they said "we are all dead!" Who would dare ask for Kelim at such a time? Perhaps they will fight them amidst anger! Due to Hash-m's request, they asked. Also, Egypt told them to leave at night, and Yisrael refused to go until morning.

Note: He assumes that they requested Kelim at the time of Makas Bechoros. Shemos 11:2-3 implies that it was beforehand! Egyptian men were Mezaneh with others' wives. Did each man think that only he does so?! "V'Zirmas Susim Zirmasam" (Yechezkel 23:20) implies that Stam Egyptians are steeped in Zimah! (PF)

How do we expound that Hash-m asked Moshe, please ask Yisrael, please...? It says "Na" only once!

Rif (on the Ein Yakov): It should have said 'Na Daber b'Aznei ha'Am', or 'Daber b'Aznei ha'Am Na...' Why is Na in the middle? This shows that it applies both to Moshe and to Yisrael. "

Why does it say "va'Avadum v'Inu Osam"?

Etz Yosef citing Mayan ha'Brachos: Midrash Rabah says that Bizas Mitzrayim was the wage for their servitude. It asks, they did not complete 400 years! It answers that the harshness of servitude with affliction was more than what was decreed for them. Therefore, there is room for a complaint - via the affliction, they completed the slavery. Why did they leave without wealth?

Would Hash-m not be adamant to fulfill His promise even without concern for Avraham's complaint? And why is he called 'Oso Tzadik'?

Iyun Yakov: In Nedarim (24a), it says 'if Reuven told Shimon 'you may not benefit from me if you will not give to my son a Kor of wheat, Chachamim say that Reuven can permit his own vow without a Chacham. He say 'I consider it as if I received.' The Ran says that this is only if the father feeds the son. If not, the son must say 'I consider it as if I received.' We rely on the merit of our Avos, like we say in all our Tefilos, and our afflictions pain them - "va'Yare'u Lanu Mitzrayim vela'Avoseinu" (Bamidbar 20:15). Similarly, our Simchah gladdens them. Avraham is the Tzadik who supports the entire world. If he would not complain [that Hash-m did not give to us, which would gladden him], there would be no concern for Yisrael's complaint. They want to leave even without wealth; it is as if they said 'we consider it as if we received.'

Etz Yosef, Rav Elyashiv #2: Hash-m knew that Bizas (the spoils from) Yam Suf will be greater than Bizas Mitzrayim; that would fulfill His promise. Avraham did not know; he would have a complaint when they left empty.

Note: Hash-m could tell Avraham 'know that they will get great wealth six days from now!' (PF)

Rav Elyashiv #1: Surely, the "Rechush Gadol" is the Torah and Mitzvos that they will receive on Har Sinai - this is the true wealth! Hash-m did not want that Avraham would have a complaint until then. This explains why we make remembrance of the harsh slavery (Maror), but not for the great wealth. We do not need a remembrance of Matan Torah, for we live all our lives in this wealth!

Why did Hash-m command to borrow Kelim? They could have demanded wages for their labor for many years?

R. Yonah (on Parashas Bo, DH Od (2)): Indeed, She'al means that they requested payment. Heaven forbid that they would request a loan and not return it!

Ha'Kosev citing Drashos ha'Ran: Hash-m wanted to drown them, Midah k'Neged Midah for drowning Jewish babies. Therefore, He made it seem that Moshe's request to go three days in the Midbar was Moshe's scheme, and not Hash-m's word. Therefore, they chased after Yisrael. Had they known that it is a gift, they would not have chased them.

Maharsha: Had we demanded wages, this would prove that we will not return to be their slaves, for what a slave acquires belongs to his master. Iyun Yakov - this is why Hash-m told Moshe to say "b'Aznei ha'Am", and not to the Egyptians, from whom they will ask. The Egyptians should not know that this is to fulfill the promise to Avraham, i.e. Yisrael will not return!

Iyun Yakov: They took them Derech Gezel, so they would enjoy them more - "Mayim Genuvim Yimtaku" (Mishlei 9:17), and so the Egyptians would be pained more. It was not truly theft, for they were owed for their work. Also, Yosef acquired the Egyptians for slaves; a slave's acquisition belongs to his master. Also, it was like uprooting a loan [from a Nochri], which is permitted. The silver and gold came to Egypt via Yosef. Do not say that the Shevatim profited from their sin (selling Yosef). We must say that it was permitted [to keep what they borrowed] - "va'Yotzi'em b'Chesef v'Zahav v'Ein bi'Shvatav Koshel" (Tehilim 105:37).

Note: This is astounding. The Egyptians became slaves to Pharaoh, and not to Yosef (Bereishis 47:25)! And even if it belonged to Yosef, what is the source that he or his sons gave their property to the other Shevatim? Also, a straight person detests Gezel! (PF)

At the Sneh, Hash-m told Moshe "v'Sha'alah Ishah mi'Shchentah" (Shemos 3:22). Why did Hash-m now command the men to take?

Rif (on the Ein Yakov): Chazal said that the spoils of Egypt were in the merit of the women. Even though what a woman acquires, her husband acquires, some men were not married. Moshe told the men to ask for silver and gold Kelim, lest Avraham have a complaint. They asked also for garments on their own, for they are even dearer to travelers.

In the Mashal, the prisoner did not want to delay freedom in order to get wealth. Presumably, he fears lest he not be freed. Here, the wealth would not delay Yisrael's freedom! And were Yisrael worried lest Hash-m not free them?

Etz Yosef: Egypt did not free Yisrael. Yisrael requested to leave for three days. Had they requested freedom and gifts, Egypt would have agreed, due to fear of the Makah - "we are all dead." However, Hash-m wanted Egypt to think that Yisrael themselves decided not to return, unlike Hash-m's will, so Egypt will chase them into the sea. The full freedom will be after Keri'as Yam Suf. Yisrael would have preferred full freedom immediately [on the day that they left] without wealth, to full freedom and wealth six days later.

R. Yonah (2b), cited in Rav Elyashiv: Hashkivenu was enacted to recall Yetzi'as Mitzrayim Tzadikim feared lest they die in Makas Bechoros due to sin, and prayed. Therefore, it is not an interruption between Ge'ulah and Tefilah.

According to the opinion that it was Bal Korcho of Egypt, why does it say "va'Yash'ilum" (they borrowed)?

R. Yonah (on Parashas Bo, DH Od (2)): Egypt was pressing Yisrael to leave, and Yisrael said 'we will leave only if you give to us...'

Maharsha citing the Mechilta: Yisrael had Ru'ach ha'Kodesh, and said 'lend to me your Kli in... and he specified where it is. The Egyptian was forced to give it to him.

Rav Elyashiv: The Egyptians said 'we have no Kelim'. The Jews showed them treasures that they saw during Makas Choshech

Rif (on the Ein Yakov): This is why we cite "u'Nevas Bayis Techalek Shalal." It was Bal Korcham of the Egyptian men, but "Hash-m Nasan Es Chen ha'Am b'Einei Mitzrayim" - in the eyes of the women.

Malbim (Bi'ur ha'Milos, Tehilim 68:3): "Nevas Bayis" is Ba'alas ha'Bayis.

Note: Even if the women gave their husband's Kelim without permission, all the men died in Keri'as Yam Suf, and then no one else had any claim to them. (PF)

According to the opinion that it was Bal Korcho of Yisrael, why did Hash-m need to command Yisrael to ask from them?

Maharsha citing the Mechilta: A Yisrael asked for one item, and the Egyptian said 'take it, and another like it.' It seems that we expound Bal Korcham from the suffix Mem in "va'Yash'ilum."

The spoils from Keri'as Yam Suf were greater than what they took from Egypt. According to the opinion that it was Bal Korcho of Yisrael, why did they take from Keri'as Yam Suf? No one commanded or forced them!

Iyun Yakov: Initially, they feared to carry a heavy load, lest the Egyptians chase after them. After the Egyptians drowned, there was no problem to carry a heavy load.

Megadim Chadashim: The Chasam Sofer (Shemos 12:36) says that Yisrael were commanded that their animals rest on Yom Tov, so each time an animal needed to excrete, they would need to take the load from in before it stopped walking. This is tedious! Therefore, they took Bal Korcham. Hash-m arranged that an Erev Rav left with them, so they could make the animals Hefker in front of them.

Note: Before they knew that an Erev Rav will go with them, they did not take willingly. At Yam Suf, they knew, so they took willingly. Why were the Erev Rav unlike Yisrael? Also converts must guard Yom Tov! Mechilta (12:38) says that the Erev Rav included also slaves. If they did not yet circumcise and immerse to become Avadim Kena'anim, they were exempt. Or, Bnei Yisrael were not commanded about Shabbos, and all the more so Yom Tov, until they came to Marah; they chose to be stringent. The Erev Rav were not stringent. (PF)

If they emptied out Egypt like a trap without grain, or the depths without fish, how did the Egyptians have wealth to take to Yam Suf?

Daf Al ha'Daf citing Merafsin Igri p.171, from the son of the Tzlach: They emptied out only their neighbors in Ra'amses and Egyptians in the capitol, but not the rest of Egypt.

Note: Rav Elyashiv answered similarly, that they took only from their neighbors in Pitom and Ra'amses. Granted, Pharaoh commanded to settle Yisrael in Ra'amses (Bereishis 47:11), which is in Goshen (Rashi). Yisrael built also Pitom (Shemos 1:11); what is the source that they lived near there? Presumably, Pharaoh settled Yisrael close to where they worked, to minimize the time wasted going to and from their worksite. (PF)

Is there a difference between a trap without grain, and a Metzulah empty of fish?

Meromei Sadeh: A trap without grain does not attract birds from elsewhere, but what was already trapped, it is there. The Metzulah is totally empty - fish flee from there. A Midrash says that they had a witchcraft to prevent slaves from fleeing. When Yisrael left, the Kishuf ceased, and it was like a Metzulah.

What is the source to expound that Moshe asked so, and Hash-m answered?

Maharsha: It says twice "va'Yomer", and the second time Hash-m said only Echeyeh. This implies that the Torah omitted Moshe's words in between. Hash-m never intended that Moshe hint to them about future afflictions; he misunderstood.

Iyun Yakov: Hash-m taught Chachmah and Musar. One should not persist in his opinion and be ashamed to retract, even if he is very great. One must accept the Emes from whoever says it. Even Hash-m admitted to Moshe!

Iyun Yakov: Hash-m saw that Moshe did not want to accept the mission, because the time of slavery was not finished. He did not know in what merit they will leave early. Moshe asked which name - if it is Midas ha'Din, the time was not finished! Hash-m answered that Midas ha'Rachamim will take them out early. Afterwards He will be with them in another subjugation, and the time will be finished.

Rav Elyashiv: Hash-m told Moshe about a future subjugation, for it is proper to pray for afflictions before they come (Sanhedrin 44b). He should not tell this to Bnei Yisrael in Egypt, for amidst affliction one prays only for the current affliction.

Why does it say that one who is Somech Ge'ulah to Tefilah will not be harmed that day?

Maharsha: We learn Semichus Ge'ulah to Tefilah from the adjacency of "Hash-m Tzuri v'Go'ali" to "Ya'ancha Hash-m b'Yom Tzarah" (Tehilim 19:15, 20:1).

Everyone is Somech Ge'ulah to Tefilah - what was special about Rav Berona?

Tosfos: We discuss one who is Somech Ge'ulah to Tefilah like Vasikin - they recite Shma before sunrise, and pray after sunrise.

Ya'aros Devash 9: His Neshamah is not damaged, i.e. he will not sin that day.

Megadim Chadashim - if so, what was R. Zeira's question, that he needs to bring myrtle to the king?

Note: Perhaps he considered it like a sin due to Bitul Torah. R. Yosi said, not only is it not Bitul Torah - it is worth paying to do so! However, would it not suffice to see once? We must say that in addition to meriting to distinguish, it is worthwhile seeing Kevod Melachim. The reason of distinguishing does not explain why one runs to see Jewish kings! (PF)

Rav Elyashiv: The guarantee that he will not be damaged is for Tzadikim like Rav Berona and R. Zeira. People who have sins, they can be damaged due to their sins!

Why did we think that one should say "Yihyu l'Ratzon..." before Tefilah?

Maharsha: We learn Semichus Ge'ulah to Tefilah from the adjacency of this verse to "Ya'ancha Hash-m..."

Etz Yosef citing Pnei Yehoshua: Therefore, it would be better to say this verse before; it ends "Hash-m Tzuri v'Go'ali."

Rif (on the Ein Yakov): Since in Tehilim it is before "Ya'ancha Hash-m...", it is proper to say so before praying.

Iyun Yakov #1: The Havah Amina was that Chazal should let everyone say it before or after, as he desires.

Iyun Yakov #2: It says "ha'Ya'aroch Shu'acha Lo v'Tzar" (Iyov 36:19) - one should pray before the affliction that all [above] will invigorate his strength, and he will not have affliction from above.

Since it was known that "Ashrei..." and "Lamah..." are one Perek, what was the question? And in all our Seforim, they are two Perakim!

Maharsha: They later added a 19th Brachah (ha'Minim) to Shemoneh Esre. The Makshan thought that they are two Parshiyos; the answer is, initially they were one Parashah; after they added, they made them two Parshiyos.

Rav Elyashiv: R. Yochanan enacted to say "Yihyu l'Ratzon" after Birkas ha'Minim was added in Yavneh, but they are still considered 18 Berachos, just with an addition. After they added, they made them two Parshiyos.

Note: How can Chachamim change the Perakim of Tehilim?! (PF)

How do we support R. Yehudah ben R. Shimon ben Pazi from another of his teachings?

Etz Yosef citing Tzlach: This is why Rashi says that the text is R. Yehudah brei d'R. Shimon. We support him from another Chacham.

Here it says that David said Halelukah only after he discussed the downfall of Resha'im. This is unlike Acharonim cite from a Midrash, that we do not say [full] Hallel on the last Yom Tov of Pesach, for Hash-m said 'My creations are drowning, and you [angels want to] say Shirah?! (Sanhedrin 39b)

Chavos Ya'ir (125): Hash-m did not desire Shirah while His creations were drowning. Afterwards, we may say Shirah over their fall.

Rosh David (Beshalach): David said "Yitamu Chata'im Min ha'Aretz u'Resha'im Od Einam [and then] Borchi Nafshi Es Hash-m [Hallelukah]" (Tehilim 104:35). Daf Al ha'Daf - Eshel Avraham brings from the Ramban (perhaps he means Rashba, Teshuvah 1:18) that we do not bless on Misas Beis Din, for Hash-m does not desire their punishment. Even though one may rejoice after their death, since we do not bless beforehand, we do not bless afterwards.

Rav Elyashiv: Also nowadays [after they died], we do not say [full] Hallel on the last Yom Tov of Pesach! Maharsha says, it is because we do not offer a different Korban [Musaf] than the previous days, like it says in Erchin 10b.

Iyun Yakov #1: Hash-m Himself does not rejoice over the downfall of Resha'im, but He makes others rejoice.

Iyun Yakov #2: Hash-m does not rejoice at the time of their downfall- Nichem Hash-m Al ha'Ra'ah, but He rejoices beforehand.

Sefas Emes (10a), citing the Zohar: We may rejoice over their downfall only after their measure [for sin] is filled - "b'Avod Resha'im Rinah" (Mishlei 11:10), but not before.

Daf Al ha'Daf citing Rav Ovadyah Yosef: The Gemara is unlike the Zohar, for it asked from Achav. According to the Zohar, this is not difficult - perhaps his measure was full!

Why do we say every Parashah that was beloved to David, he began with and ended with "Ashrei"? There is only one such Parashah!

Tosfos (10a): It means that he ended it similar to its beginning, e.g. "Tehilah l'David" (Tehilim 145) ends "Tehilas Hash-m Yedaber Pi..."

Rashba (10a): Based on this, Chazal enacted to end Brachos similarly to their beginning.

Maharsha (10a): Based on this, we infer that initially, "Ashrei ha'Ish..." and "Lamah Ragshu" were one (it began with and ended with "Ashrei"), and they were divided after Chazal added Birkas ha'Minim to Shemoneh Esre.