1)

(a)What do we learn from the word "Hu" (in the Pasuk in Bechukosai "ve'Im Mach Hu me'Erkecha")?

(b)From where do we then know that Hekdesh does not leave the basics for his wife and children?

(c)On what grounds do the Rabbanan disagree with Rebbi Elazar in our Mishnah, who maintains that Beis-Din leave money for a farmer to purchase a pair of oxen, and for an ass-driver, a donkey?

(d)Why is the ruling in our Mishnah, forbidding the Makdish to sell his third adz in order to purchase a second saw, not obvious? Why may we have permitted it?

1)

(a)We learn from the word "Hu" (in the Pasuk in Bechukosai "ve'Im Mach Hu me'Erkecha") that - Hekdesh leaves the Ma'arich the basics with which to live (Hechyeihu me'Erkecha).

(b)And it is from the same word "Hu" that - we extrapolate that Hekdesh leaves him with his basic needs, but not his wife and children with theirs.

(c)The Rabbanan disagree with Rebbi Elazar in our Mishnah, who maintains that Beis-Din leave money for a farmer to purchase a pair of oxen and for an ass-driver, a donkey - since these are included in 'Nechasav', which he declared Hekdesh, and which cannot therefore be precluded.

(d)The ruling in our Mishnah forbidding the Makdish to sell his third adz in order to purchase a second saw is not obvious. In fact, we might have permitted it - on the grounds that whereas previously people would lend him a saw on the understanding that he would lend them an adz, when they needed it, now that he no longer has a spare adz, they will no longer do so.

2)

(a)When a man who had sold all his property came before Rav Yeimar, what did the latter instruct the people to do?

(b)On what grounds might we have thought otherwise, in spite of our Mishnah, which issues the same ruling regarding someone who declares all his property Hekdesh?

2)

(a)When a man who had sold all his property came before Rav Yeimar, the latter instructed the people - to remove his Tefilin, since they were included in the sale.

(b)We might have thought otherwise, in spite of our Mishnah (which issues the same ruling regarding someone who declares all his property Hekdesh) - because, unlike Hekdesh, which is a Mitzvah, when a person sells his property (which is not) he does not have in mind to include his Tefilin.

3)

(a)What does our Mishnah say about someone who declares his property Hekdesh, with regard to ...

1. ... the clothes belonging to his wife and children?

2. ... the dye with which he dyed their clothes (see Tiferes Yisrael) and new shoes that he purchased on their behalf?

(b)To which case, besides Makdish, do all these rulings apply?

3)

(a)Our Mishnah rules that if someone declares his property Hekdesh ...

1. ... the clothes belonging to his wife and children ...

2. ... the dye with which he dyed their clothes (see Tiferes Yisrael) and new shoes that he purchased on their behalf - are not included.

(b)Besides Makdish, all these rulings also apply to - someone who declares 'Erki Alai'.

4)

(a)If one purchases an article of clothing for thirty Dinrim, by how much is it likely to raise the value of the Eved whom one subsequently sells wearing it?

(b)By the same token, at which stage will ...

1. ... a cow that is designated for Shechitah go up in value?

2. ... a jewel increase its value?

(c)What does our Mishnah rule regarding all three current cases (an article of clothing, an ox designated for Shechitah and a jewel)? What do they have in common?

(d)In the Pasuk there "Venasan es ha'Erk'cha ba'Yom ha'Hu Kodesh la'Hashem" what does the Beraisa learn from the words ...

1. ... "ba'Yom ha'Hu"?

2. ... "Kodesh la'Hashem"?

(e)Regarding the first of these two D'rashos, what happens if the owner goes to town and sells his jewel at a higher price than what it was assessed for?

4)

(a)If one purchases an article of clothing for thirty Dinrim, its value is likely to increase by as much as seventy Dinrim if the Eved whom one subsequently sells is wearing it - adding a Manah on to the value of the Eved.

(b)By the same token ...

1. ... a cow that is designated for Shechitah will go up in value - if one waits for it to arrive at the Beis-ha'Shechitah.

2. ... a jewel will increase its value - if it is taken to town to be assessed.

(c)In all three current cases (an article of clothing, an ox designated for Shechitah and a jewel) our Mishnah rules that - they are assessed at the lower rate, according to their current situation and location (based on the principle Ein le'Hekdesh Ela Mekomo ve'Sha'ato).

(d)In the Pasuk there "Venasan es ha'Erk'cha ba'Yom ha'Hu Kodesh la'Hashem", the Beraisa learns from the words ...

1. ... "ba'Yom ha'Hu" that - one does not take the pearl into town to have it assessed, but assesses it there where it is.

2. ... "Kodesh la'Hashem" that - S'tam Hekdesh goes to Bedek ha'Bayis (where only Hash-m benefits from it, but neither the Kohanim nor the Mizbe'ach).

(e)Regarding the first of these two D'rashos, should the owner go to town and sell his jewel at a higher price than what it was assessed for - then that is his good fortune, since at the time of the assessment, it was worth the lesser amount.

Hadran alach 'Shum ha'Yesomim

Perek Ein Makdishin

5)

(a)What does our Mishnah specify as the minimum number of years ...

1. ... before the Yovel that one is permitted to sell a Sadeh Achuzah?

2. ... after the Yovel that one may redeem it?

(b)What do we learn from the word "Shanim" (in the Pasuk in Bechukosai in connection with Sadeh Achuzah "al-Pi ha'Shanim ha'Nosaros")?

(c)Even though our Mishnah rules that we do not reckon months regarding Hekdesh (as we will explain), nevertheless if it is for the benefit of Hekdesh, we do. What is the case?

5)

(a)Our Mishnah specifies as the minimum number of years ...

1. ... before the Yovel that one is permitted to sell a Sadeh Achuzah as - two.

2. ... after the Yovel that one may redeem it as - one.

(b)We learn from the word "Shanim" (in the Pasuk in Bechukosai in connection with Sadeh Achuzah "al-Pi ha'Shanim ha'Nosaros") that - one may not be Makdish a field within two years of the Yovel.

(c)Even though our Mishnah rules that we do not reckon months regarding Hekdesh (as we will explain), nevertheless if it is for the benefit of Hekdesh, we do, in a case where for example, the owner is Makdish a field one a half years prior to the Yovel, where, by reckoning the half year that has already passed, it is considered being Makdish within two full years, and he will have to redeem it fifty Shekalim (instead of two Sela'im and two Pundiyonim, as we will explain).

6)

(a)Which year does the Beraisa preclude from being Makdish one's field?

(b)What does the Tana say about other years?

(c)How do Rav and Shmuel reconcile the Beraisa with our Mishnah, which precludes the first two years from the Din of Hekdesh?

(d)How do they then interpret the Lashon used by our Mishnah 'Ein Makdishin ... ', seeing as there is no such prohibition?

6)

(a)The Beraisa precludes - the Yovel year from being Makdish one's field.

(b)In other years, says the Tana - one may.

(c)Rav and Shmuel reconcile the Beraisa with our Mishnah, which precludes the first two years from the Din of Hekdesh - by explaining this to mean that one cannot be Makdish it at the lower rate, but at the higher rate, one can (as we will explain shortly).

(d)And they interpret the Lashon used by our Mishnah 'Ein Makdishin ... ' to mean that - in view of the relatively exorbitant redemption rate, one should have pity on one's money and not sanctify it at all.

7)

(a)How many Pundiyonim are there in a Sela?

(b)At what rate per annum per Chomer of barley does one normally redeem a Sadeh Achuzah?

(c)How much does one actually pay Hekdesh when redeeming one's field at the beginning of the forty-nine year period?

(d)What is the significance of the extra Pundiyon?

(e)According to Rav and Shmuel, what do we now learn from "al-Pi ha'Shanim ha'Nosaros"?

7)

(a)There are forty-eight Pundiyonim in a Sela).

(b)One normally redeems a Sadeh Achuzah at the rate ('Giru'a) of - one Sela and one Pundiyon per annum per Chomer of barley ...

(c)... in which case, if one redeems one's field at the beginning of the forty-nine year period, one is actually paying Hekdesh - fifty Sela'im and one Pundiyon (since the Yovel-year itself is not included in the sale).

(d)The extra Pundiyon - is a sort of fee that one pays Hekdesh (Kolbon li'Perotrot, as we learned in Bechoros).

(e)According to Rav and Shmuel, we now learn from "al-Pi ha'Shanim ha'Nosaros" that - someone who is Makdish a Sadeh Achuzah within two years of Yovel and redeems it, is not subject to the reduced rate of redemption, and is obligated to pay the full fifty Sela'im.

8)

(a)Rav rules that if someone declares his field Hekdesh in the Yovel year itself, it is Kadosh and he redeems it at the rate of fifty Sela'im per Chomer of barley. What does Shmuel say?

(b)Rav and Shmuel will repeat their Machlokes in the ninth Perek with regard to someone who sells his field in the Yovel. Why does Rav Yosef query Shmuel here but not there?

(c)This is based on a ruling of Rebbi Yehudah. What does Rebbi Yehudah say about fields that have not been redeemed by the time the Yovel arrives?

(d)And we refute Rav Yosef's Kashya by establishing Shmuel like Rebbi Shimon. What does Rebbi Shimon say?

(e)How does Rav counter this?

8)

(a)Rav rules that if someone declares his field Hekdesh in the Yovel year itself, it is Kadosh and he redeems it at the rate of fifty Sela'im per Chomer of barley. According to Shmuel - it is not Kadosh at all.

(b)Rav and Shmuel will repeat their Machlokes in the ninth Perek with regard to someone who sells his field in the Yovel. Rav Yosef queries Shmuel here, but not there - due to the Kal-va'Chomer (that if a sold field goes out in the Yovel, how much more so can a field not be sold) which prevents it from taking affect).

(c)This is based on a ruling of Rebbi Yehudah, who rules that if fields have not been redeemed by the time the Yovel arrives - the Kohanim take possession of them, but not before they have paid Hekdesh the redemption fee (a proof that, as opposed to sold fields, Hekdesh does not automatically dissipate with the advent of the Yovel, (in which case there is no Kal-va'Chomer).

(d)And we refute Rav Yosef's Kashya by establishing Shmuel like Rebbi Shimon - who permits the Kohanim to take over the fields without paying money to Hekdesh (in which case the same Kal-va'Chomer that pertains to a sold field, will pertain to a field of Hekdesh.

(e)Rav counters this - by pointing out that even according to Rebbi Shimon, the fields go back (not to the owner, but) to the Kohanim, a proof that the Kedushah remains intact even according to him, and the reason that the Kohanim may take over the fields is because they are considered guests at Hash-m's table.

24b----------------------------------------24b

9)

(a)What does Rav learn from the Pasuk in Bechukosai "Im mi'Shenas ha'Yovel Yakdish Sadeihu"?

(b)How does Shmuel counter that, based on grammar?

(c)Now that, according to Shmuel, "mi'Shenas ha'Yovel" means after the Yovel, how will he explain the next Pasuk (in connection with the Din of Giru'a) "ve'Im Achar ha'Yovel Yakdish Sadeihu"?

(d)At what rate does one redeem a field that one is Makdish and redeems the year after the Yovel, according to both Rav and Shmuel?

9)

(a)Rav learns from the Pasuk "Im mi'Shenas ha'Yovel Yakdish Sadeihu" that - Kedushah takes effect even on a field that one has been Makdish during the Yovel.

(b)Shmuel however, maintains that - the Torah's choice of the "Mem" in "mi'Shenas" indicates that it is referring to the year after the Yovel.

(c)Seeing as Shmuel interprets "mi'Shenas ha'Yovel" to mean after the Yovel, the next Pasuk (in connection with the Din of Giru'a) "ve'Im Achar ha'Yovel Yakdish Sadeihu" - must be referring to the year after the Yovel.

(d)According to both Rav and Shmuel, a field that one is Makdish and redeems the year after the Yovel one is obligated to redeem - at the full rate of fifty Sela'im.

10)

(a)How will Rav explain the Beraisa (that we cited earlier) 've'Im bi'Shenas ha'Yovel Atzmah Lo Yakdish'?

(b)How will he then explain the ruling that precedes it 'Makdishin Lifnei ha'Yovel'?

(c)What problem does this create regarding Rav (and Shmuel)'s earlier statement?

10)

(a)Rav will interpret the Beraisa (that we cited earlier) 've'Im bi'Shenas ha'Yovel Atzmah Lo Yakdish', like he and Shmuel interpreted our Mishnah above 'Ein Makdishin Liga'el be'Giru'a, Aval Kadosh ve'Nosnin Chamishim Shekel' ...

(b)... in which case, he will have to explain the ruling that precedes it 'Makdishin Lifnei ha'Yovel' - to mean 'Makdishin Liga'el be'Giru'a' ...

(c)... creating a problem - since Rav (and Shmuel) said earlier 'Ein Makdishin Liga'el be'Giru'a Pachos mi'Shetei Shanim'.

11)

(a)To resolve the discrepancy, Rav establishes the Beraisa (where 'Ein Makdishin' now means literally, and Makdishin, to pay fifty Sela'im) like the Rabbanan, whereas he holds like Rebbi, and they argue over how to interpret the Pasuk "ve'Im mi'Shenas ha'Yovel ... ". How will we explain it according to ...

1. ... the Rabbanan?

2. ... Rebbi?

(b)Rav extrapolates Rebbi's opinion here from his ruling regarding "mi'Yom Rishon ad Yom Shevi'i" (the source for Ad ve'ad bi'Chelal, as we already learned). What does Shmuel say about that?

11)

(a)To resolve the discrepancy, Rav establishes the Beraisa (where 'Ein Makdishin' now means literally, and Makdishin, to pay fifty Sela'im) like the Rabbanan, whereas he holds like Rebbi, and they argue over how to interpret the Pasuk "ve'Im mi'Shenas ha'Yovel ... ". According to ...

1. ... the Rabbanan - it precludes the Yovel itself ('Ad ve'Lo Ad bi'Chelal'), as we learned above in Perek Heseg Yad.

2. ... Rebbi - it includes the Yovel ('Ad ve'Ad bi'Chelal').

(b)Rav extrapolates Rebbi's opinion here from his ruling regarding "mi'Yom Rishon ad Yom Shevi'i" (the source for 'Ad ve'ad bi'Chelal', as we already learned). Whereas Shmuel confines Rebbi's opinion specifically to where the Torah uses the word "Ad".

12)

(a)According to Rav's interpretation of Rebbi, we query the Sela and Pundiyon redemption fee. What is the problem with it?

(b)How do we know that Rebbi concurs with it?

(c)And we answer that Rebbi holds like Rebbi Yehudah. Which Rebbi Yehudah?

(d)And how do we prove that, according to Shmuel, Rebbi must concur with the Rabbanan? What would be the problem if he held like Rebbi?

12)

(a)According to Rav's interpretation of Rebbi, we query the Sela and Pundiyon per annum redemption fee - because seeing as Rebbi includes the Yovel year in the sale, the fifty Sela'im cover the fifty years from Yovel to Yovel, one Sela per year, a Sela ought to suffice?

(b)And we know that Rebbi concurs with it - because he explicitly says so in the next Mishnah.

(c)We answer that Rebbi holds like Rebbi Yehudah - in whose opinion the Yovel year counts at one and the same time as the last year of the old cycle and the first year of the new one.

(d)And we prove that according to Shmuel, Rebbi must concur with the Rabbanan, because if he held like Rebbi Yehudah - then now that he does not count the Yovel year in the Kedushah of the field, the fifty Sela'im ought to cover forty-eight years (one Sela and two Pundeyonim per annum).

13)

(a)We query Rav from our Mishnah 've'Lo Go'alin Achar ha'Yovel Pachos mi'Shanah'. What is the Tana coming to teach us according to Shmuel?

(b)What problem does the Mishnah create with Rav?

(c)How do we therefore interpret 'Achar ha'Yovel' and 'Pachos mi'Shanah', according to Rav?

(d)Seeing as the Mishnah adds 'Ein Mechashvin Chodshim le'Hekdesh', what is the Reisha (the statement that we just explained) coming to teach us?

13)

(a)We query Rav from the Beraisa 've'Lo Go'alin Achar ha'Yovel Pachos mi'Shanah'. According to Shmuel, the Tana is coming to teach us that - if one is Makdish a field in the Yovel year itself, it does not require Pidyon (because the Kedushah does not take effect).

(b)But according to Rav, where it does - what does the Mishnah mean?

(c)According to Rav therefore, we interpret 'Achar ha'Yovel' to mean - any time after the Yovel, and 'Pachos mi'Shanah', that - if one comes to redeem the field in the middle of the year, one cannot pay a half a Sela plus half a Pundiyon for the forthcoming half-year, but a whole Sela and Pundiyon.

(d)When the Mishnah adds 'Ein Mechashvin Chodshim le'Hekdesh', it is coming (not to add something new, but) - to give the reason for the Reisha (as we just explained).

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