(a)Our Mishnah forbids the Chametz of a Jew b'Hana'ah after Pesach, but permits that of a non-Jew. Why does the author not appear to be ...
1. ... Rebbi Yehudah?
2. ... Rebbi Shimon?
3. ... Rebbi Yosi Hagelili?
(b)Rav Acha bar Yakov establishes our Mishnah like Rebbi Yehudah. Why then, does he restrict the Isur Hana'ah after Pesach to the Chametz belonging to a Jew?
(c)From where does he learn this Chidush and to what extremes does he carry it?
(a)The author of our Mishnah, which permits the Chametz of a non-Jew after Pesach, does not appear to be ...
1. ... Rebbi Yehudah - who forbids all Chametz b'Hana'ah after Pesach (mid'Oraisa), even that of a non-Jew.
2. ... Rebbi Shimon - who permits even the Chametz of a Jew after Pesach.
3. ... Rebbi Yosi Hagelili - who permits even Chametz during Pesach b'Hana'ah, and certainly Chametz after Pesach.
(b)Rav Acha bar Yakov, who establishes our Mishnah like Rebbi Yehudah - maintains that it is only the Chametz of a Jew that is Asur b'Hana'ah after Pesach, but that of a non-Jew cannot possibly be forbidden, since in his opinion, Chametz of a non-Jew may even be eaten on Pesach, in which case, it can hardly be Asur b'Hana'ah after Pesach.
(c)According to Rav Acha bar Yakov, we learn the 'Se'or' of Achilah from the 'Se'or' of Re'iyah, that just as the Chametz of a non-Jew may be seen, so too, may it be eaten.
(a)Rava establishes our Mishnah like Rebbi Shimon. But did we not learn that Rebbi Shimon permits deriving benefit from Chametz after Pesach?
(b)How does he explain the statement in our Mishnah 'Mishum she'Ne'emar "Lo Yera'eh Lecha Se'or" '?
(c)How does Rav Acha bar Yakov explain it?
(d)In which case - according to Rebbi Yehudah's opinion - is Rav Acha bar Yakov lenient, and Rava strict?
(a)Rava establishes our Mishnah like Rebbi Shimon - because Rebbi Shimon permits deriving benefit from Chametz after Pesach mid'Oraisa, but not mid'Rabanan.
(b)According to Rava, what the Mishnah means when it forbids the Chametz of a Jew after Pesach, because of "Lo Yera'eh Lecha Se'or" - is that the reason that the Chachamim penalized the Chametz of a Jew after Pesach is because he had transgressed the La'av of "Lo Yera'eh Lecha Se'or".
(c)Rav Acha bar Yakov explains that 'Mishum she'Ne'emar "Lo Yera'eh Lecha Se'or" ' - refers to the Reisha, 'Chametz shel Nochri she'Avar Alav ha'Pesach, Mutar b'Hana'ah', because of the Pasuk "Lo Yera'eh Lecha Se'or", from which we learn that Chametz of a gentile may be seen, and we then learn Se'or of Achilah from Se'or of Re'iyah'.
(d)Someone who eats Chametz of a gentile after Pesach according to Rebbi Yehudah, will receive Malkus according to Rava (who does not learn Se'or of Achilah from that of Re'iyah; whereas according to Rav Acha bar Yakov (who does) he will be Patur.
(a)'ha'Ochel Chametz shel Hekdesh b'Mo'ed, Mo'el'; v'Yesh Omrim, Lo Ma'al'. Rav Acha bar Yakov (later in the Sugya) establishes the Yesh Omrim like Rebbi Yehudah. How does this explain their opinion?
(b)How does this prove that Rav Acha bar Yakov retracted from his original opinion?
(c)Rebbi Yochanan establishes the Yesh Omrim like Rebbi Nechunyah ben Hakanah. What does Rebbi Nechunyah ben Hakanah say, and how does that explain the Yesh Omrim?
(d)How do we reconcile the fact that Rebbi Nechunyah ben Hakanah only exempts one from paying if he sinned b'Meizid, with the fact that Me'ilah is only b'Shogeg?
(a)According to Rebbi Yehudah, who holds that Chametz is forbidden b'Hana'ah even after Pesach, Chametz has no value on Pesach, nor does it have any monetary value for after Pesach, which is why the Yesh Omrim hold 'Lo Mo'al'.
(b)The above Svara is all very well by Chulin, but Kodshim are not subject to the Isur of Bal Yera'eh and Bal Yimatzei on Pesach - and if Rav Acha still learns Se'or of Achilah from Se'or of Yera'eh, then he ought to permit Hekdesh ba'Achilah, and why is he not Mo'el. So we must conclude that he retracted.
(c)Rebbi Yochanan establishes the Yesh Omrim like Rebbi Nechunyah ben Hakanah, who says that if Reuven sets fire to Shimon's haystack on Yom-Kippur, he is Patur from paying - because even though the punishment for transgressing Yom-Kippur is Kares (which is only at the Hands of Hash-m, and not of Beis-Din), he is nevertheless Patur from paying. Similarly, someone who eats Chametz of Hekdesh on Pesach is Chayav Kares, and is therefore Patur from paying Hekdesh, and whoever does not pay the principle, is not Chayav to pay the extra fifth either.
(d)'ha'Ochel Chametz shel Hekdesh b'Mo'ed, Mo'el' speaks when he was Shogeg on the Hekdesh (which explains why Me'ilah is applicable), but Meizid on the Chametz (which explains why Rebbi Nechunyah ben Hakanah exempts him from Me'ilah.
(a)Rav Yosef establishes the Yesh Omrim like those who forbid the redeeming of Kodshim in order to feed them to one's dogs. According to Rav Acha bar Rava, Rav Yosef establishes even the Tana Kama like them. Then why does the Tana Kama say 'Mo'el'?
(b)Rav Ashi explains that both Tana'im hold that one cannot redeem Kodshim in order to feed one's dogs, and that even something which eventually causes a monetary loss is not called money. Why then, does the Tana Kama say that he is Mo'el?
(a)According to Rav Acha bar Rava in Rav Yosef, the Tana Kama says 'Mo'el' - because he holds Davar ha'Gorem l'Mamon, k'Mamon Dami (meaning that, since, after Pesach, he could still have fulfilled his obligation with the Chametz, even though, on Pesach, it had no intrinsic value, it is still considered Mamon).
(b)Rav Ashi explains that both Tana'im hold that one cannot redeem Kodshim to feed one's dogs, and that even something which will eventually spare a monetary loss, is not called money. The reason that the Tana Kama renders him Mo'el - is because he holds like Rebbi Yosi Hagelili, who permits Chametz b'Hana'ah on Pesach.
(a)Rav rules that if Chametz fell into other food during Pesach, it is forbidden, irrespective of whether it fell into its own kind (Min b'Mino) or into another kind (Min b'Sheino Mino). But if it fell in after Pesach, it is only its own kind that becomes forbidden. Why can Rav not be speaking when sufficient food fell in to add taste?
(b)Why is Rav more stringent by Chametz which fell into other food during Pesach than by when it fell into it after Pesach?
(c)Why is Rav more stringent by Chametz than by Chelev and blood (which also carry the sentence of Kares, yet he did not decree a Mashehu when they fell into another kind because of when they fell into the same kind)?
(a)If Rav (who forbide Chametz that fell into other food whether it is b'Mino or she'Lo b'Mino') is speaking when sufficient food fell in to add taste - then why does he say that after Pesach, it is only b'Mino which becomes forbidden , but not b'she'Eino Mino? Why should that not also be forbidden? Consequently, Rav can only be speaking when only a Mashehu fell in.
(b)Rav forbids even Chametz which fell into she'Lo b'Mino b'Mashehu (and which is normally Batel), because of when it fell into b'Mino, due to the stringency of Chametz which is Chayav Kares.
(c)Rav is more stringent by Chametz than he is by Chelev and blood - because one tends to be wary of Chelev and blood, which is not the case by Chametz, which is Mutar all the year round.
(a)What does Shmuel hold ...
1. ... on Pesach?
2. ... after Pesach?
(b)Why is he more lenient than Rav ...
1. ... on Pesach?
2. ... after Pesach?
(a)Shmuel says ...
1. ... 'Chametz bi'Zemano b'Mino Asur, she'Lo b'Mino, Mutar'.
2. ... 'she'Lo bi'Zemano, Bein b'Mino, Bein she'Lo b'Mino, Mutar'.
(b)Shmuel is lenient ...
1. ... on Pesach - because he does not decree she'Lo b'Mino because of b'Mino;
2. ... after Pesach - because he holds like Rebbi Shimon, who permits Chametz after Pesach.
(a)Rebbi Yochanan holds neither entirely like Rav nor entirely like Shmuel. What does he say?
(a)Rebbi Yochanan holds like Rav with regard to Chametz that fell into food on Pesach, but like Shmuel if it fell in after Pesach.