Question: Then why does the Tana not mention Se'irei Roshei Chodashim and not the others.

Implied Question: Even though Rosh Chodesh is also mentioned in Parshas Pinchas ...

Answer: We might have thought that "Eileh Ta'asu la'Yom be'Mo'adeichem" that appears at the end of the Parshah does not pertain to Rosh Chodesh, only to the other Yamim-Tovim, which follow it, and which are called 'Regalim' ...

Answer (cont.): Just as it not pertain to Shabbos or to Tamid, both of which require separate Pesukim, as we shall see shortly.

Clarification: Rabeinu Tam explains that they applied before the Torah was given, according to those in Chagigah (Daf 6.) who hold that the Olah which Yisrael brought in the desert was the Olas Tamid.

Clarification: And as for the Lechem ha'Panim, the Riva explains that we learn it from the word "Tamid", implying 'even on Shabbos'.

Clarification (cont.): There is an opinion in Toras Kohanim that the Tamid overrides Shabbos since the Torah writes "Tamid" in connection with it.

Implied Question: From any two of them however, we could have learned all of them?

Answer: The Ri explains that perhaps there is some Pircha (of which we are unaware), because why would we otherwise a Pasuk by the others?

Question: In the first Perek of Yevamos (Daf 5:) the Gemara wants to say that an Asei overrides a Lo Sa'aseh which is subject to Kareis from Pesach and Milah.

Question (concl.): And the Gemara asks there 'Whereas Pesach and Tamid applied before the Torah was given'. Why does the Gemara not learn from the other Korb'nos Tzibur which override Shabbos, as we have learned here?

Question #1: Why advantage does Rebbi Shimon have over Rebbi Yehudah?

Question #2: To the contrary, the Gemara in Mi she'Hotzi'uhu (Eruvin Daf 46:) that wherever Rebbi Yehudah and Rebbi Shimon argue, the Halachah is like Rebbi Yehudah?

Answer: We find later (on Daf 78.) that Rebbi Yossi whose S'varos are very strong (and whose opinion we therefore follow), holds 'Tum'ah Dechuyah Hi'.

Question: The Ri asks that in our Sugya, those who hold 'Tum'ah Dechuyah' only works in conjunction with Ritzuy Tzitz. Why is it any different than the Tum'ah of the person, which is also Dechuyah be'Tzibur, even though the Tzitz does not atone for Tum'as ha'Guf, as we learned in the Mishnah in this Perek, on Daf 80:).

Text: The correct text is Rebbi Eliezer, and not Rebbi Elazar ...

Proof: Since the Gemara asks later 'And according to you, since Rebbi Eliezer holds 'Yesh Dam Af-al-Pi she'Ein Basar', why does it need to mention 'ha'Tzitz Meratzeh al Achilos'?

Clarification: This implies that it is because he requires both blood and Basar.

Question: But even if he holds 'Yesh Dam Af-al-Pi she'Ein Basar, since he holds 'Tum'ah Dechuyah' and 'Ein ha'Tzitz Meratzeh al Achilos, the Mishnah cannot go like him, on account of the Sh'tei ha'Lechem?

Question: The Ri asks that it must go according to Rebbi Yehoshua, since the Seifa states that even though the Basar becomes Tamei and the Cheilev remains, one sprinkles the blood'.

Question (cont.): Implying that if both of them become Tamei, one does not sprinkle the blood, conforming with the opinion of Rebbi Yehoshua, as the Gemara will learn later?

Answer: What the Gemara means to ask is that the Reisha seems to go not like Rebbi Yehoshua, even though the Seifa certainly does. If so, the Seifa poses a Kashya?

Implied Question: One could fulfil the Mitzvah of throwing even without the space ...

Answer: And the space is only there to remind the Kohanim to throw the limbs.

Question: The Rashba asks from where we know that by Olah we say 'Yesh Dam, Af-al-Pi she'Ein Basar'?

Question (cont.): Perhaps it is specifically by Shelamim that we say this; but an Olah, which is completely burned, maybe we say 'Ein Basar, Ein Dam'; from where do we know that we say there 'Yesh Dam, Af-al-Pi she'Ein Basar'?

Question: Perhaps this is restricted to a Shelamim, which is subject to two Achilos? From where do we know that it applies to an Olah, too?

Question (cont.): Why do we not say that just as there no Me'ilah once the blood has been sprinkled, as we learned in the Mishnah in Me'ilah, in Perek Chatas ha'Of (Daf 9.), there is also no Me'ilah before it has been sprinkled?

Question (concl.): Since the current Pasuk is written in connection with Shelamim?

Answer #1: Rebbi Eliezer does not this Chumra (of Shelamim over Olah [See Chidushei Maharshal]).

Answer #2: The Rashba answers that Rebbi Eliezer learns from the Kal va'Chomer of Rebbi Yehoshua, and the Pasuk only mentions Shelamim because of the principle 'Something that one learn from a S'vara, the Torah will nevertheless mention specifically, as the Gemara will say shortly.)

Question: Whatis the significance of 'Ba'in be'Tum'ah' with regard to the Sh'tei ha'Lechem (since they are entirely eaten)?

Answer: Because of the Mitzvah of Tenufah to which they are subject.

Question: Why do we need a Pasuk by the Olah to teach us 'Im Ein Basar Ein Dam', seeing as the Tzitz atones?

Answer: We need it for there where it got lost or burned, in which case the Tzitz does not atone.

Implied Question: It now transpires that the Kashya from Sh'tei ha'Lechem remains unanswered?

Answer: But it doesn't matter, since the Gemara queries the answer anyway.

Question: The Rashba asks why the Gemara does not answer like it answered earlier - 'Like Rebbi Yehoshua, who requires two things; and not like Rebbi Yehoshua, who holds 'ha'Tzitz Meratzeh al Achilos' whereas we hold that it does not?