1)

(a)A second Beraisa discusses the three exceptions to Rebbi's previous ruling. If the phrase in Sh'lach-L'cha "ki D'var Hash-m Bazah" refers to someone who denies Hash-m and someone who deliberately makes false D'rashos in the Torah, what does "ve'es Mitzvaso Heifar" refer to?

(b)How does Rebbi then explain ...

1. ... the double expression "Hikares Tikares"?

2. ... the phrase "Avonah bah"?

(c)And how does he extrapolate that "ki D'var Hash-m Bazah" refers to somebody ...

1. ... who denies Hash-m?

2. ... who deliberately makes false D'rashos in the Torah?

(d)How do the Rabbanan (in whose opinion Teshuvah is crucial to Mechilah) explain ...

1. ... "Hikares Tikares"?

2. ... "Avonah bah"?

2)

(a)Who is the author of the Seifa of our Mishnah, who says (regarding the Sa'ir ha'Mishtale'ch) 'Echad Yisrael, ve'Echad Kohanim ve'Echad Kohen Mashu'ach'?

(b)Then how does Rav Yosef explain the fact that we establish the author as Rebbi?

(c)What She'eilah did Abaye now ask Rav Yosef about establishing the Mishnah like Rebbi Yehudah?

(d)According to the second side of the She'eilah, why did Rav Yosef prefer to establish the author as Rebbi and not as Rebbi Yehudah?

3)

(a)We resolve the She'eilah from a Sifra. What does the Sifra initially try to prove from the Korban Chatas and Asham with regard to the Kaparah of Yom-Kipur?

(b)How does the Tana refute the proof? What other leniency does Yom Kipur have that Chatas and Asham do not?

(c)How can we reconcile this Pircha with the fact that three out of the five Ashamos as well as the Chatas of Shevu'as ha'Eidus atone for a Meizid?

4)

(a)So what does the Tana finally learn from the word "Ach" (in the Pasuk in Emor "Ach be'Asor la'Chodesh ... ")?

(b)Who is the author of the Sifra?

(c)What has Rav Yosef then proved from here?

(d)What does another Beraisa Darshen from the word "Hu" (in the Pasuk there "Ki Yom Kipurim Hu)? What sort of person is the Torah referring to?

(e)Abaye establishes the first Beraisa like Rebbi Yehudah, and the second one like Rebbi. Rava establishes both Beraisos like Rebbi. How does he then explain the first Beraisa? In which case will Yom Kipur not atone without Teshuvah even according to Rebbi?

5)

(a)How do we try to prove the latter statement logically?

(b)How do we refute this proof? What do we learn from the Pasuk in Emor "Ki ba'Yom ha'Zeh Yechaper aleichem"?

(c)So we try to bring an identical proof from the fact that, according to Rebbi, Kareis will now not apply to someone who transgresses Yom Kipur by day. How do we know that this must be possible?

(d)We refute this proof too in two ways; one, where a person eats a bone and chokes before a second of the day that would have atoned for him has passed. What is the other?

13b----------------------------------------13b

6)

(a)How does Rav Yehudah reconcile the statement in our Mishnah 'Echad Yisrael, ve'Echad Kohanim ve'Echad Kohen Mashu'ach' with the statement (that follows it) 'Mah bein Yisrael le'Kohanim u'le'Kohen Mashu'ach'?

(b)Who is then the author of the Mishnah?

(c)According to Rebbi Yehudah, the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos (in connection with the Par ve'Sa'ir) "Ve'chiper es Mikdash ha'Kodesh" refers to the Kodesh Kodshim. How long must a Tamei person wait in the Kodesh Kodshim, in order to render it Tamei and to become Chayav?

(d)And what does Rebbi Yehudah Darshen from ...

1. ... "ve'es Ohel Mo'ed"?

2. ... "ve'es ha'Mizbe'ach"?

3. ... "Yechaper"?

7)

(a)And if, according to him, "ha'Kohanim" (in the Pasuk "ve'Al ha'Kohanim, ve'Al Kol Am ha'Kahal Yechaper") is literal, to whom does ...

1. ... "Kol Am ha'Kahal" refer?

2. ... "Yechaper" refer?

(b)Why can this latter phrase not also be referring to the Par and the Sa'ir (where it is written)?

(c)To what does it then refer?

(d)According to Rebbi Shimon, the Viduy of the Par of the Kohanim (and not the Sa'ir ha'Mishtale'ch) atones for the sins of the Kohanim, as we learned in our Mishnah. How does Rebbi Shimon then explain the Hekesh that we just quoted, of the Kohanim and Levi'im to the Yisre'elim?

8)

(a)What does Rebbi Shimon learn from "Sh'nei ha'Se'irim" (in the Pasuk there "Ve'lakach es Sh'nei ha'Se'irim")?

(b)From where do we know that the Sa'ir ha'Penimi does not atone for the Kohanim?

(c)And what Rebbi Yehudah learn from "Sh'nei ha'Se'irim"?

9)

(a)What does the Beraisa try to learn from "Asher lo" (in the Pasuk there "Ve'hikriv Aharon es Par ha'Chatas Asher lo")?

(b)In that case, how will the Kohanim gain atonement for their sins?

(c)On what grounds does the Beraisa then suggest that it is the Sa'ir ha'Penimi that atones for all the Kohanim?

(d)On what basis does the Tana conclude that it must be the Par, and not the Sa'ir (in spite of "Asher lo")?

10)

(a)To answer the Kashya that will be explained shortly, what does the Tana prove from the Pasuk in Hallel "Beis Aharon Borchu es Hash-m ... "?

(b)On what basis do Rebbi Yirmiyah and Rava establish the Beraisa like Rebbi Shimon?

(c)In that case, how can Abaye establish it even like Rebbi Yehudah?

(d)And what did the Tana mean when he said 've'Im Nafshach Lomar'? Which Kashya was the Tana referring to that caused him to answer with the Pasuk "Beis Aharon Borchu es Hash-m"?

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