1)

(a)Why can we not interpret the Pasuk in Vayikra "v'Samach v'Nirtza" literally?

(b)Then what does it mean?

(c)Which other of the Korban's requirements follows exactly the same pattern as Semichah (with regard to all the points that we just mentioned?

1)

(a)We not interpret the Pasuk in Vayikra "v'Samach v'Nirtza" literally - because "v'Nirtza" means that it atones, and it is not the Semichah that atones, but the sprinkling of the blood.

(b)"v'Samach v'Nirtza" - means that even though Semichah is not Me'akev, it is nevertheless a serious thing to omit it. So much so that, if one does omit it, it is considered as if it was not Mechaper (see Tosfos Yeshanim).

(c)Tenufah follows exactly the same pattern as Semichah (with regard to all the points that we just mentioned).

2)

(a)Is the seven-day Hafrashah Me'akev by the Milu'im, according to ...

1. ... Rebbi Yochanan?

2. ... Rebbi Chanina?

(b)From where do we know that Hafrashah is not Me'akev the Avodah on Yom Kipur?

(c)According to Ravina, the difference between Rebbi Yochanan and Rebbi Chanina is whether they require both Ribuy Shiv'ah and Meshichah Shiv'ah. Meshichah Shiv'ah means that the Kohen Gadol must be anointed with the anointing oil for seven consecutive days. What did the anointing comprise?

(d)What does 'Ribuy Shiv'ah' mean?

2)

(a)The seven-day Hafrashah is Me'akev by the Milu'im, according to ...

1. ... Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish, but not according to ...

2. ... Rebbi Chanina.

(b)We know that Hafrashah is not Me'akev the Avodah on Yom Kipur - because our Mishnah said (with regard to the deputy Kohen Gadol) 'Maskinin', and not 'Mafrishin' (see 3b. answer 8a.).

(c)According to Ravina, the difference between Rebbi Yochanan and Rebbi Chanina is whether they require both Ribuy Shiv'ah and Meshichah Shiv'ah. Meshichah Shiv'ah means that the Kohen Gadol must be anointed with the anointing oil for seven consecutive days. The anointing comprised smearing oil both on his head like a Greek 'chi', and between his eye-lashes.

(d)'Ribuy Shiv'ah' means wearing the eight garments for the seven days.

3)

(a)What is the meaning of the term 'Miluy Yadayim'.

(b)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Tetzaveh ...

1. ... "Shiv'as Yamim Yilbasham ha'Kohen"?

2. ... " ... va'Asher Yemalei es Yadam"?

3. ... "Asher Yimshach Osam"?

(c)The Torah does not actually mention Meshichah in the Din of seven days (as it does wearing the eight garments). In the Gemara's second explanation, we learn it from the Hekesh of "Yilbasham" to "Yemalei es Yadam". What is the Gemara's first explanation?

3)

(a)'Miluy Yadayim' means initiated by wearing the eight garments.

(b)We learn from the Pasuk

1. ... "Shiv'as Yamim Yilbasham ha'Kohen Tachtav mi'Banav" - that the Kohen Gadol is initiated by being anointed for seven days and wearing the eight Bigdei Kehunah Gedolah.

2. ... " ... va'Asher Yemalei es Yadam" - that he can be initiated by wearing the clothes for eight days even though he was anointed only once.

3. ... "Asher Yimshach Osam" - that he can be initiated by being anointed for seven days even though he wore the clothes only once.

(c)According to the Gemara's first explanation - we know that the Kohen Gadol is anointed all seven days of his initiation from the fact that we preclude it from being Me'akev (if it would not be necessary to do so l'Chatchilah, then it would not be necessary to preclude it from being Me'akev).

4)

(a)What do we learn from the word "Kachah" (Tetzaveh)?

(b)Then why do we need the 'Gezeirah Shavah' of "Pesach" (Tetzaveh) "Pesach" (Tzav)?

(c)What is it that is not mentioned in the Parshah, and that we learn from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah'?

(d)But doesn't the Torah write "Venasata el Choshen ha'Mishpat es ha'Urim v'es ha'Tumim" - in Parshas Tetzaveh?

4)

(a)Rebbi Yochanan and Resh Lakish learn from the word "Kachah" - that whatever is written by the Milu'im is Me'akev.

(b)We need the 'Gezeirah Shavah' of "Pesach" (Tetzaveh) "Pesach"(Tzav) - to teach us that even something that is not written explicitly in the Parshah is also Me'akev.

(c)This comes to include placing the Urim v'Tumim into the Choshen Mishpat, which is not mentioned in Tetzaveh, only in Tzav.

(d)True, the Torah writes "Venasata el Choshen ha'Mishpat es ha'Urim v'es ha'Tumim" in Parshas Tetzaveh - but that is in the Parshah of the Bigdei Kehunah, and not the Milu'im.

5b----------------------------------------5b

5)

(a)What does Rav Mesharshaya learn from the Pasuk in Tzav "u'Shemartem es Mishmeres Hash-m", and Rav Ashi from "Ki Chen Tzuveisi"?

(b)What is the advantage of Rav Mesharshaya's Derashah over the 'Gezeirah-Shavah'.

5)

(a)Rav Mesharshaya learns from the Pasuk in Tzav "u'Shemartem es Mishmeres Hash-m", and Rav Ashi from "Ki Chen Tzuveisi" - that everything which is written in the Parshah of Milu'im is Me'akev.

(b)The advantage of their Derashos over the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' - is that according to them we learn it from the Parshah of Milu'im itself.

6)

(a)The Gemara then takes the opportunity to elaborate on similar phrases in Parshas Shemini: Why does the Torah need to write ...

1. ... "Kechu es ha'Minchah ha'Noseres me'Ishei Hash-m v'Ichluha Matzos ... Ka'asher Tzuveisi"?

2. ... (regarding the burnt goat of the Chatas Rosh Chodesh) "Achol Tochlu Osah ba'Kodesh Ka'asher Tziveisi"?

3. ... (regarding the Chazeh and the Shok of the Milu'im "Ka'asher Tzivah Hash-m"?

(b)What was Moshe's basic mistake in 2.?

6)

(a)Moshe needed to say ...

1. ... "Kechu es ha'Minchah ha'Noseres me'Ishei Hash-m v'Ichluha Matzos ... Ki Chen Tzuveisi" - (by Hash-m) to eat the Minchah, even though they were Onenim.

2. ... (regarding the burnt goat of the Chatas Rosh Chodesh) "Achol Tochlu Osah ba'Kodesh Ka'asher Tziveisi" - to tell them that they should have eaten the goat of Rosh Chodesh like he had commanded them to do with the Minchah.

3. ... (regarding the Chazeh and the Shok of the Milu'im "Ka'asher Tzivah Hash-m" - to tell them that they should eat them even though they were Onenim, because that is what Hash-m told him (and he had not erred here like he did by the goat of Rosh Chodesh [see Tosfos Yeshanim]).

(b)Moshe's basic mistake in 2. was that, even though Hash-m had ordered Aharon and his sons to eat the Kodshei Sha'ah (the special Korbanos of the Milu'im) in spite of the fact that they were Onenim - that concession did not extend to Kodshei Doros (the regular Korbanos, such as the Musaf of Rosh Chodesh).

7)

(a)We learn from the word "v'Zeh ha'Davar Asher Ta'aseh Lahem Lekadesh Osam Lechahen" (in Tetzaveh) that the Kohanim had to wear the pants during the Avodah of the Milu'im, even though they are not mentioned in the Parshah. How do we learn this from "v'Zeh"?

(b)What else do we learn from "v'Zeh" that is not mentioned in the Parshah of Milu'im? How do we learn it from there?

7)

(a)We learn that the Kohanim had to wear the pants during the Avodah of the Milu'im (even though they are not mentioned in the Parshah) from the word "v'Zeh ha'Davar Asher Ta'aseh Lahem Lekadesh Osam Lechahen" (in Tetzaveh) - because the 'Vav' connects this Parshah with the previous one, where the pants are mentioned.

(b)We also learn through a 'Gezeirah-Shavah' from "v'Zeh" here and "v'Zeh Korban Aharon u'Vanav" (Tzav) that the Kohen Gadol had to bring the Asiris ha'Eifah (which is not mentioned in the Parshah of the Milu'im) during the Milu'im.

8)

(a)We learn from Pesukim in Tetzaveh that Moshe was also commanded to read the Parshah of Milu'im during the seven days of Milu'im. How do we learn from the Pasuk in Tzav "Zeh ha'Davar Asher Tzivah Hash-m" that that too is Me'akev (Note: Whenever we learn from the fact that something is repeated in the Parshah of Tzav, when the Milu'im was actually performed, the Gemara is merely applying the principle that, in the realm of Kodshim, a repeated word or phrase means that it is Me'akev.)

(b)The Gemara then discusses how Moshe dressed Aharon and his sons for the Milu'im. What problem do we have with this?

(c)So why does the Gemara nonetheless find it necessary to explain it to us?

8)

(a)We learn from the Pasuk in Tzav "Zeh ha'Davar Asher Tzivah Hash-m" that even reading the Parshah of the Milu'im is Me'akev, too (because the word "Davar" always refers to speech).

(b)The Gemara then asks how Moshe dressed Aharon and his sons for the Milu'im. Why does the Gemara need to ask a She'eilah that is no longer relevant, asks the Gemara. The Milu'im is long finished, so what is the point of asking such She'eilah?

(c)The Gemara nonetheless find it necessary to pursue the point in order to resolve seemingly contradictory Pesukim.

9)

(a)The sons of Rebbi Chiya and Rebbi Yochanan argue over the order of dressing. Based on Pesukim, one of them says that Moshe first dressed Aharon and then his sons. What does the other one say?

(b)Which two garments do they all agree that Moshe dressed Aharon first?

(c)Are the pants not included in this statement? Why are they not mentioned?

(d)What do some learn from ...

1. ... the sequence of the Pesukim in Tzav "Vayachgor Oso ba'Avneit" and then "Vayachgor Osam Avneit"?

2. ... "Vechagarta Osam Avneit Aharon u'Vanav" (in Tetzaveh)?

9)

(a)The sons of Rebbi Chiya and Rebbi Yochanan argue over the order of dressing. Based on Pesukim, one of them says that Moshe first dressed Aharon and then his sons. The other one says that he dressed them at the same time.

(b)They all agree that Moshe first dressed Aharon the Kutones (the long shirt) and the Mitznefes (the hat or the turban).

(c)The pants was the first garment with which Moshe dressed Aharon and his sons. Consequently, since he first dressed Aharon in his shirt, he must have also dressed him first him in his pants (The Ramban in Chumash points out that, due to Tzeni'us, Aharon and his sons put on the pants themselves - in which case, the question falls away).

(d)Some learn from ...

1. ... the sequence of the Pesukim in Tzav "Vayachgor Oso ba'Avnet" and then Vayachgor Osam Avnet" - that Moshe first dressed Aharon and then his sons.

2. ... and others from "Vechagarta Osam Avnet Aharon u'Vanav"- that he dressed them both simultaneously.

10)

(a)How do those who maintain that Aharon and his sons were dressed simultaneously explain the sequence of the Pesukim in Tzav? Why does the Torah separate the two?

(b)And according to those who hold that Moshe dressed Aharon first, why, in Tetzaveh, does the Torah mention them together as if they were dressed simultaneously?

(c)What does 'simultaneously' mean anyway? How could Moshe possibly dress them all at the same time?

(d)What does the other opinion hold?

10)

(a)Those who maintain that Aharon and his sons were dressed simultaneously explain that the sequence of the Pesukim in Tzav comes to teach us that their clothes (even the four garments that they both wore) were not exactly the same - i.e. that although the belt of the Kohen Gadol contained Sha'atnez (wool and linen threads), that of the Kohen Hedyot did not.

(b)According to those who hold that Moshe dressed Aharon first - the Torah mentions them together in Tetzaveh to teach us that the Kohen Hedyot's belt, like that of the Kohen Gadol, contained Sha'atnez.

(c)'Simultaneously' - means that, after dressing Aharon in the pants, the shirt and the hat, he dressed his sons in the same three garments; then he tied Aharon's belt, and then his sons - before dressing Aharon in the four special clothes of the Kohen Gadol.

(d)According to the other opinion, he dressed Aharon in all his eight garments, before dressing his sons in their four.

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