Perek Kol ha'Basar
1)
(a)Why might we have thought that one may cook lamb and beef in milk?
(b)Which kind of meat does our Mishnah nevertheless permit cooking in milk?
(c)Why does the Tana forbid placing meat on the same table as cheese? Why would we have thought that it is permitted?
(d)This does not apply to the meat of fish and locusts either. What third distinction does our Tana draw between animal meat and them?
1)
(a)We might have thought that one may cook lamb and beef in milk - because the Torah only mentions the meat of a kid-goat in this connection.
(b)Our Mishnah nevertheless permits cooking in milk - the meat of fish and locusts.
(c)The Tana forbids placing meat on the same table as cheese (even though one is allowed to eat meat after cheese [according to the Gemara]) - in case one comes to eat them together (which in turn, is prohibited in case the cold cheese touches the hot meat and absorbs some of its taste, which involves an Isur min ha'Torah).
(d)This does not apply to the meat of fish and locusts either. The third distinction that our Tana draws between animal meat and them is that - someone who declares that he will not derive benefit from meat, is permitted to eat fish and locusts.
2)
(a)What do we extrapolate from our Mishnah, which cites Basar Dagim and Chagavim as exceptions to the Isur of cooking Basar ve'Chalav, but not birds?
(b)This seems to establish the Mishnah not like Rebbi Akiva. What does Rebbi Akiva say?
(c)The Rabbanan in the Mishnah in Nedarim rule that someone who declares that he will not derive benefit from vegetables is permitted to benefit from pumpkin. How do they prove it?
(d)How does Rebbi Akiva counter that? What does he prove from vegetables and legumes?
2)
(a)We extrapolate from our Mishnah, which cites Basar Dagim and Chagavim as exceptions to the Isur of cooking Basar ve'Chalav, but not birds that - cooking fowl in milk is Asur mi'd'Oraysa.
(b)This seems to establish the Mishnah not like Rebbi Akiva, who says that - cooking Chayah and Of in milk is not Asur mi'd'Oraysa.
(c)The Rabbanan in the Mishnah in Nedarim rule that someone who declares that he will not derive benefit from Yerek, is permitted to benefit from pumpkin, and they prove it from the fact that, if Reuven would ask Shimon to purchase Yerek, he would come back empty-handed, based on the fact that he all he found was pumpkins (a proof that pumpkins are not called Yerek).
(d)Rebbi Akiva counters that - by asking why he will not explain that he did not buy Yerek because all he found was Kitnis (legumes)? Unless it is because pumpkins are a kind of Yerek, whereas legumes are not.
3)
(a)What is the criterion that determines the Din of Nedarim according to both of the aforementioned opinions?
(b)Based on his S'vara in the Mishnah in Nedarim, what will Rebbi Akiva hold regarding someone who declares that he will not eat meat, as far as fowl is concerned?
(c)Then who is the author of the Seifa of our Mishnah ('ha'Noder min ha'Basar ... ')?
(d)What does this prompt us to ask?
3)
(a)The criterion that determines the Din of Nedarim according to both aforementioned opinions is - how people refer to the object.
(b)Based on his S'vara in the Mishnah in Nedarim, Rebbi Akiva will hold that if someone declares that he will not eat meat - fowl is included.
(c)The author of the Seifa of our Mishnah ('ha'Noder min ha'Basar ... ') - is therefore Rebbi Akiva ...
(d)... which prompts us to ask Reisha Rabbanan ve'Seifa Rebbi Akiva?
4)
(a)Rav Yosef establishes the entire Mishnah like Rebbi. How does this answer the Kashya?
(b)According to Rav Ashi on the other hand, the entire Mishnah goes like Rebbi Akiva. Bearing in mind that we just extrapolated from Kol ha'Basar Asur Levashel be'Chalav, Ha Of Asur mi'd'Oraysa, how can Rav Ashi do that? How does he interpret Asur in our Mishnah?
4)
(a)Rav Yosef establishes the entire Mishnah like Rebbi - who, in connection with fowl, holds like the Rabbanan regarding the Isur of Basar be'Chalav, and like Rebbi Akiva regarding the Isur of Nedarim.
(b)According to Rav Ashi on the other hand, the entire Mishnah goes like Rebbi Akiva. Interpreting Kol ha'Basar Asur Levashel be'Chalav, as incorporating Isur de'Rabbanan as well as d'Oraysa, he therefore amends Ha Of Asur mi'd'Oraysa, to Ha'Of, Asur (meaning mi'de'Rabbanan), whereas Basar Dagim and Chagavim is not even Asur mi'de'Rabbanan.
104b----------------------------------------104b
5)
(a)How does Rav Yosef extrapolate from our Mishnah 've'Asur Laha'alos im ha'Gevinah al ha'Shulchan', that eating Basar Of be'Chalav must be an Isur d'Oraysa?
(b)How does he try to prove this from the Mishnah in Chalah 'Chalas Chutz la'Aretz Ne'echeles im ha'Zar al ha'Shulchan'?
(c)How does Abaye refute Rav Yosef's proof?
(d)Why would the proof have been sound, had the Tana said 'Chalas Chutz la'Aretz ba'Aretz ... '?
(e)So why would the Rabbanan be justified in decreeing in our Mishnah, even assuming that Basar Of be'Chalav is only Asur mi'de'Rabbanan (like Rebbi Akiva)?
5)
(a)Rav Yosef extrapolates from our Mishnah 've'Asur Laha'alos im ha'Gevinah al ha'Shulchan', that eating Basar Of be'Chalav must be an Isur d'Oraysa - because if it was only de'Rabbanan, they would not have decreed bringing it on to the table on account of eating (due to the principle of not issuing one decree on another decree (Gezeirah li'Gezeirah Lo Gazrinan).
(b)And he tries to prove this from the Mishnah in Chalah 'Chalas Chutz la'Aretz Ne'echeles im ha'Zar al ha'Shulchan' - since there too, Chalas Chutz la'Aretz is only de'Rabbanan, and we see that the Rabbanan did not decree further.
(c)Abaye refutes Rav Yosef's proof however - because in in the Mishnah in Chalah, there is no d'Oraysa for the decree to take affect.
(d)The proof would have been sound had the Tana said 'Chalas Chutz la'Aretz ba'Aretz ... ' - where the Rabbanan could have issued a decree on account of Chalas Eretz Yisrael, which is d'Oraysa.
(e)That being the case, the Rabbanan would be justified in issuing a decree in our Mishnah, even assuming that Basar Of be'Chalav is only Asur mi'de'Rabbanan (like Rebbi Akiva), on account of Basar Beheimah with cheese (which is d'Oraysa).
6)
(a)What problem ...
1. ... does Rav Sheishes have with this, despite the fact that Basar Beheimah cooked together with cheese is d'Oraysa?
2. ... do we have with Abaye's initial answer, establishing the decree that they might serve the meat still hot in a dish?
(b)How do we resolve the problem?
6)
(a)The problem ...
1. ... Rav Sheishes has with this, despite the fact that Basar Beheimah cooked together with cheese is d'Oraysa is that - seeing as both the meat and the cheese are cold, there is no Isur d'Oraysa here either.
2. ... with Abaye's initial answer establishing the decree, that they might serve the meat still hot in a dish is that - seeing as a dish (Ilfas) is a K'li Sheini, it remains an Isur de'Rabbanan.
(b)We resolve the problem - by amending the decree to the chance that one might bring the meat still hot on to the table in an Ilfas Rishon (the pot in which the meat was cooked), which would render it an Isur d'Oraysa.
7)
(a)The Isur of serving Basar Of together with cheese, as well as eating them together, is the opinion of Beis Hillel in the next Mishnah. What do Beis Shamai say?
(b)What distinction does the Tana draw between the table at which one eats and the serving table?
7)
(a)The Isur of serving Basar Of together with cheese, as well as eating them together is the opinion of Beis Hillel in the next Mishnah. Beis Shamai rule there that - although one is not permitted to eat them together, they may be placed on the table simultaneously.
(b)The Tana finally - confines the decree to the table at which one eats, but permits bringing Basar Of together with cheese on to the serving table.
8)
(a)What seemingly superfluous statement did Rebbi Yossi in our Mishnah make?
(b)How do we initially explain it? What do we suggest he is coming to add on the Tana Kama?
(c)We refute this however, on the basis of a Beraisa where Rebbi Yossi himself lists six Machlokos between Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel. What does he say about ...
1. ... those six cases?
2. ... Basar Of be'Chalav (our case)?
8)
(a)The seemingly superfluous statement that Rebbi Yossi in our Mishnah, made was - 'Zu mi'Kulei Beis Shamai u'mi'Chumrei Beis Hillel' (which is self-evident).
(b)Initially, we explain that Rebbi Yossi comes to add on the Tana Kama that - not only do Beis Shamai disagree with Beis Hillel as regards bringing Basar Of with cheese to the table, but they even permit eating them together as well.
(c)We refute this however, on the basis of a Beraisa, where Rebbi Yossi himself lists six Machlokos between Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel; He then states ...
1. ... that - they are the only cases in Shas where Beis Shamai goes le'Kula, and Beis Hillel, le'Chumra.
2. ... that - in the case of Basar Of be'Chalav (our case) - Beis Shamai argues with Beis Hillel as regards serving Basar Of together with cheese, but not as regards eating them together (which tallies with the Tana Kama).
9)
(a)So why does Rebbi cite Rebbi Yossi in our Mishnah?
(b)Why did Rebbi find it necessary to do this?
(c)How do we learn this from the Pasuk in Megilas Esther "Vatomer Esther la'Melech be'Shem Mordechai"?
9)
(a)We therefore conclude that Rebbi cites Rebbi Yossi in our Mishnah - to teach us that the Tana Kama is in fact, Rebbi Yossi.
(b)Rebbi found it necessary to teach us this - in order to fulfill the principle (stated in the Mishnah in Pirkei Avos) Kol ha'Omer Davar be'Shem Omro, Meivi Ge'ulah le'Olam.
(c)And we learn this from the Pasuk in Megilas Esther "Vatomer Esther la'Melech be'Shem Mordechai" - where Esther informed Achashverosh of the plot on his life, and this later caused the salvation at the hand of Mordechai.
10)
(a)What did Agra the father-in-law of Rebbi Aba say about fowl and cheese?
(b)How did he subsequently explain it?
(c)What did Rav Yitzchak b'rei de'Rav Mesharshaya do (or not do) when Rav Ashi served him first cheese, and then meat?
(d)How did he justify this, when they queried him from Agra the father-in-law of Rebbi Aba, who permitted this regarding fowl and cheese, but not regarding the equivalent case by meat and cheese?
10)
(a)Agra the father-in-law of Rebbi Aba permitted eating fowl after cheese - be'Hefkeirus (without any preparation), as that was what he heard from his Rebbes. (Note that meat after hard cheese is a Chumra that was instituted only later).
(b)He subsequently explained it to mean that - neither washing one's hands nor rinsing out one's mouth is required.
(c)When Rav Ashi served Rav Yitzchak b'rei de'Rav Mesharshaya first cheese, and then meat - he ate first the former, then, the latter, without washing his hands.
(d)When they queried him from Agra the father-in-law of Rebbi Aba, who permitted this regarding fowl and cheese, but not regarding the equivalent case by meat and cheese, he justified what he did - by restricting the obligation of washing one's hands, to nighttime, when one cannot inspect one's hands, but in the daytime, when one can see that they are clean, it is not necessary.