PESACHIM 96 (20 Tishrei) - Dedicated by Al and Sophia Ziegler of Har Nof, Jerusalem, and their son Jared, in loving memory of Al's mother, Chaya bas Berel Dov Ziegler, on the day of her Yahrzeit - and that her grandson Jared may be Zocheh to build a Bayis Ne'eman b'Yisrael with his Kalah!

1)

(a)Rav Yosef asks whether a Tamei Mes will be Chayav if he eats the Emurim of a Pesach ha'Ba b'Tum'ah. How does Rava resolve this She'eilah? What has this to do with the Pasuk in Tzav "Asher la'Hashem"?

(b)The Gemara suggests (with regard to the Emurim of the Pesach in Egypt) that perhaps 'Sheviski Avud'. What does this mean?

(c)It goes on to substantiate this with Rav Yosef, who quotes a Beraisa which says that there were three altars in Egypt. What were they?

(d)What does the Gemara prove from there?

1)

(a)Rava resolves Rav Yosef's She'eilah (whether a Tamei Mes will be Chayav if he eats the Emurim of a Pesach ha'Ba b'Tum'ah or not) - from the fact that the source for the prohibition of eating the Emurim b'Tum'ah is from the extra words "Asher la'Hashem", which is written by the Basar. So wherever one is not Chayav for eating the Basar b'Tum'ah, one is not Chayav for eating the Emurim either.

(b)'Perhaps Sheviski Avud' - means that perhaps they ate the Emurim on spits. Who said that they were burned (like they would subsequently be in the Beis ha'Mikdash)!?

(c)The three altars in Egypt were the two door-posts and the lintel.

(d)They were used exclusively for the blood, and there was nothing else there on which to burn the Emurim.

2)

(a)What do we learn from ...

1. ... the Pasuk in Bo "v'Hayah Lachem l'Mishmeres"?

2. ... the Gezeirah Shavah "Tishmeru" (by the Korban Tamid) and "l'Mishmeres"?

(b)What do we preclude from the Pasuk in Bo ...

1. ... "Dabru ... b'Asor la'Chodesh ha'Zeh v'Yikchu"?

2. ... "v'Hayah Lachem l'Mishmeres Ad Arba'ah-Asar Yom la'Chodesh ha'Zeh"?

(c)If subsequent Pesachim do not require examination from the tenth, does that mean that they do not require examination four days before they are sacrificed?

2)

(a)We learn from ...

1. ... the Pasuk "v'Hayah Lachem l'Mishmeres" - that the Pesach needs to be examined for blemishes four days before Pesach (in Egypt, this was specifically from the tenth of Nisan).

2. ... the Gezeirah Shavah "l'Mishmeres" and "Tishmeru" (by the Korban Tamid) - that the Tamid too, requires examination four days before it is due to be brought.

(b)From the Pasuk in Bo ...

1. ... "Dabru ... b'Asor la'Chodesh ha'Zeh v'Yikchu" - that it was only the Pesach in Egypt that needed to be examined from the tenth, but not that of subsequent generations.

2. ... "v'Hayah Lachem l'Mishmeres Ad Arba'ah-Asar Yom la'Chodesh ha'Zeh" - that it is only the Pesach Rishon that needs to be examined four days before, but not the Pesach Sheni.

(c)Even though the subsequent Pesachim do not require examination from the tenth, they nevertheless do require examination four days before they are sacrificed, as we shall soon see.

3)

(a)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Bo "v'Avad'ta es ha'Avodah ba'Laylah ha'Zeh"?

(b)Due to the above Derashah of "v'Avad'ta", we Darshen "v'Achlu es ha'Basar ba'Laylah ha'Zeh" like Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah and Rebbi Akiva. What do they Darshen?

(c)And what do we then learn from ...

1. ... "v'Chol Arel Lo Yochal Bo"?

2. ... "Kol Ben Neichar Lo Yochal Bo"?

3. ... "u'Maltah Oso, Az Yochal Bo"?

4. ... "v'Etzem Lo Yishberu Bo"?

5. ... "Al Tochlu Mimenu Na"?

(d)Why does the Torah find it necessary to exempt both an Arel and a Ben Neichar from bringing the Korban Pesach? Why would we not have known the one from the other?

3)

(a)We learn from the Pasuk in Bo "v'Avad'ta es ha'Avodah ha'Zos ba'Chodesh ha'Zeh" - that all the Avodos of subsequent Pesachim should be equivalent to those of Pesach Mitzrayim.

(b)Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah Darshens from "v'Achlu es ha'Basar ba'Laylah ha'Zeh" - that the Pesach must be eaten by mid-night (from a 'Gezeirah Shavah' from "v'Avarti b'Eretz Mitzrayim ba'Laylah ha'Zeh"), and Rebbi Akiva, that it can only be eaten on that night (and not for two nights, like a Shelamim).

(c)we learn from ...

1. ... "v'Chol Arel Lo Yochal Bo" - that an Arel is obligated to eat Matzah and Maror (even when he is unable to eat the Pesach - see Tosfos 120a. DH 'Kol').

2. ... "Kol Ben Neichar Lo Yochal Bo" - that a Kohen who serves idols may eat Terumah.

3. ... "u'Maltah Oso, Az Yochal Bo" - that a Kohen who has a son or a non-Jewish slave who are uncircumcised may eat Terumah.

4. ... "v'Etzem Lo Yishberu Bo" - that one may break the bones of a Pasul Pesach.

5. ... "Al Tochlu Mimenu Na - from a 'Gezeirah Shavah' ("Mimemu" by Ma'aser from "Mimenu" by Pesach) that an Arel is forbidden to eat Ma'aser Sheni.

(d)Had the Torah exempted an Arel from the Pesach - we would have ascribed that to the fact that he is physically repulsive (whereas a Ben Neichar is not); and had the Torah exempted only a Ben Neichar, we would have ascribed that to the fact that his heart is not with Hash-m (whereas an Arel's is). Consequently, the Torah needs to exempt them both.

4)

(a)On what (two) grounds does Rashi reject the section that queries the word Bo by "Toshav v'Sachir"?

4)

(a)Rashi rejects the section that queries the word Bo by "Toshav v'Sachir" - because of the answer of the Gemara: that someone who serves idols is permitted to eat Terumah. Firstly, he asks, why does the Gemara consider a Toshav and Sachir (which normally refers to hired workers) as idolaters; and secondly, we are learning the same Derashah as we learned a few moments ago by Ben Neichar (see 3c. 2) - it is unclear why Rashi refers to a Gemara in ha'Arel and not the Gemara that we just learned).

5)

(a)What do we Darshen from the Pasuk in Bo "va'Achaltem Oso b'Chipazon"?

(b)How do we finally amend the Mishnah which currently reads 'Pesach Mitzrayim ... v'Ne'echal b'Chipazon b'Laylah Echad, u'Pesach Doros Kol Shiv'ah'?

(c)What does Rebbi Yosi Hagelili learn from the juxtaposition of the two Pesukim in Bo "Lo Ye'achel Chametz ... ha'Yom Atem Yotz'im"?

5)

(a)We learn from the Pasuk "va'Achaltem Oso b'Chipazon" - that subsequent Pesachim need not be eaten in haste (with belts fastened, wearing shoes and stick in hand), as it was in Egypt.

(b)We finally amend the Mishnah 'Pesach Mitzrayim ... v'Ne'echal b'Chipazon b'Laylah Echad, u'Pesach Doros Kol Shiv'ah' - to read 'Pesach Mitzrayim ... v'Ne'echal b'Chipazon b'Laylah Echad v'Hu ha'Din l'Pesach Doros, v'Chimutzo Kol ha'Yom, u'Pesach Doros Kol Shiv'ah'.

(c)Rebbi Yosi Hagelili learns from the juxtaposition of the two Pesukim in Bo "Lo Ye'achel Chametz ... ha'Yom Atem Yotz'im" - that the Isur of Chametz only applied in Egypt for one day.

96b----------------------------------------96b

6)

(a)Rebbi Yehoshua heard that 'Temuras Pesach Kereivah'. What does this mean?

(b)What problem did he have with that statement?

(c)How did Rebbi Akiva solve the problem?

(d)We just learned that a lost Pesach that was found before its replacement was Shechted was not brought directly as a Pesach, and neither was its Temurah. Why not?

6)

(a)'Temuras Pesach Kereivah' that Rebbi Yehoshua heard about - referred to a Pesach that became lost and the owner 'transferred' its Kedushah to a Chulin animal (exactly when, we shall soon see), which is then brought directly on the Mizbe'ach as a Shelamim.

(b)He found this problematic, because he had also heard that 'Temuras Pesach Einah Kereivah' and he was unable to explain the distinction.

(c)Rebbi Akiva solved the problem: If the lost lamb was found before its replacement was Shechted, it is not brought directly, but sent to graze in the field, until it becomes blemished. Then it is redeemed and the proceeds are used to purchase a Shelamim. But if it was found after the Shechitah, it is brought directly as a Shelamim.

(d)The reason that the former was not brought directly as a Pesach, and neither was its Temurah - is because, since it was found before the Shechitah of the replacement and was available for Shechitah, the fact that the other one was Shechted, and it, rejected, causes it to become 'Dachuy', rendering it unfit to bring on the Mizbe'ach (whilst a Temurah tends to adopt the same Kedushah as the animal from which it came).

7)

(a)Considering that the same distinction applies to a Pesach itself that got lost and was found, as to a Temuras Pesach, why do Rebbi Yehoshua and Rebbi Akiva discuss the Din of a Temuras Pesach and not that of a Pesach itself (that got lost)?

(b)Rabah understands 'Kodem Shechitah' and 'le'Achar Shechitah' in our Mishnah literally. According to Rebbi Zeira, the criterion is not the Shechitah itself, but mid-day. Then why does the Tana refer to the Shechitah?

(c)What are the ramifications of their Machlokes?

(d)Will it make any difference in all these cases if the lost Pesach had not been re-placed at the time when it was found?

7)

(a)The reason that Rebbi Yehoshua and Rebbi Akiva discuss the Temuras Pesach and not the Pesach itself (that got lost) - is to teach us the bigger Chidush that even a Temuras Pesach (which is initially designated as a Shelamim, and not as a Pesach (and perhaps it should not therefore be considered rejected by the replacement, which is after all, not a Shelamim, but a Pesach) is nevertheless sometimes Dachuy.

(b)According to Rebbi Zeira, who considers the criterion to be, not the Shechitah itself, but mid-day - the reason the Tana mentions Shechitah, is because mid-day is the time when the Shechitah commences.

(c)The ramifications of their Machlokes - will be if the lost Pesach was found after mid-day but before the Shechitah of the replacement; according to Rabah, it is rejected and is therefore sent to graze; whereas according to Rebbi Zeira, it may be Shechted directly as a Shelamim.

(d)If the lost Pesach had not been re-placed at the time when it was found - then it is not in any way rejected and can therefore be brought directly on the Mizbe'ach.

8)

(a)If the Pesach was found before the Shechitah of its replacement, and the owner declared a Temurah on it after the Shechitah, Rabah says that it must be sent to graze. Why is that?

(b)Then in which case is a Temurah brought directly?

(c)How does the Gemara attempt to refute Rabah's statement from the Beraisa, which learns from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Im Kesev" that a Temuras Pesach is brought directly as a Shelamim?

(d)From where do we know that a Temuras Pesach should be brought as a Shelamim?

8)

(a)If the Pesach was found before the Shechitah of its replacement, and the owner declared a Temurah on it after the Shechitah, Rabah says that it must be sent to graze - because the Temurah came from a rejected Kedushah.

(b)A Temurah is only brought directly if the lost lamb was also found after the Shechitah of the replacement.

(c)The Gemara attempts to refute Rabah's statement from the Beraisa, which learns from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Im Kesev" that a Temuras Pesach is brought directly as a Shelamim - because, if this was talking about a case where the lost lamb was found and the Temurah declared after the Shechitah of the replacement, then what will be the Chidush, as this appears to be obvious!? Consequently, the Pasuk must be speaking when the Temurah may have been declared* after the Shechitah, but the lamb must have been found beforehand - and yet, it is brought directly as a Shelamim!?

(d)We know that a Temuras Pesach should be brought as a Shelamim - from the Pasuk in Re'eh "v'Zavachta Pesach", from which we learn that a Mosar ha'Pesach is brought as a Shelamim, and a Temuras ha'Pesach that cannot be brought as a Pesach, is also a Mosar ha'Pesach.

9)

(a)The Gemara concludes that, according to Rabah, the Derashah from "Im Kesev" (that a Temuras Pesach is brought directly as a Shelamim) is an Asmachta, and that "Im Kesev" (which is seemingly superfluous) comes to include the Pesach in the Din of the Alyah (the fat-tail - i.e. to be burned together with the Emurim). Why do we need a special Pasuk for the Alyah of the Pesach? Why should it be any different than the fat-tail of the sheep that is brought with the Emurim of all other Korbanos (even of Kodshei Kodashim)?

(b)What do we learn from ...

1. ... "Im Kesev"?

2. ... "v'Im Eiz"?

(c)Why can we not say that the tail of a goat (which is not as large as that of a lamb) is not called Alyah?

9)

(a)We need a special Pasuk for the Alyah of the Pesach. We would not have known it from the Alyah of the sheep that is brought with the Emurim of all other Korbanos - because the Emurim themselves are not written explicitly by the Pesach (only from the Pasuk in Korach "Es Damam Tizrok v'es Chelbam Taktir" - which is written by Bechor).

(b)we learn from ...

1. ... "Im Kesev" - that the Mosar ha'Pesach (or the Chagigas Arba'ah-Asar) has the Din of a Shelamim.

2. ... "v'Im Eiz" - that the Alyah of a goat is not brought with the Emurim of the goat, as is that of a lamb.

(c)We cannot say that a goats tail is not considered an Alyah - because if that was so, why would we require a Pasuk to preclude it from the Din of Alyah.

10)

(a)In the second Lashon, Rabah comes to qualify the Reisha of the Mishnah: 'ha'Pesach she'Nimtza Kodem Shechitas ha'Pesach, Yir'eh Ad she'Yista'ev'. How does he qualify it?

(b)Abaye refutes Rabah's statement from a Beraisa which precludes from "Pesach Hu" a Temuras Pesach that was found before Pesach. How does he do that?

10)

(a)In the second Lashon, Rabah comes to qualify the Reisha. 'ha'Pesach she'Nimtza Kodem Shechitas ha'Pesach, Yir'eh Ad she'Yista'ev', he says, refers specifically to a case where both the lamb was found and the Temurah was declared, before the Shechitah of its replacement; but not if the Temurah was declared afterwards.

(b)Abaye refutes Rabah's statement from a Beraisa which precludes from "Pesach Hu", a Temuras Pesach that was found before Pesach. To preclude a case where both the lost lamb was found and the Temurah was declared before the replacement was Shechted from being brought on the Mizbe'ach directly, is obvious and does not require a Pasuk. The Pasuk must therefore come to preclude a case where although the lamb was found before the Shechitah, the Temurah was declared only afterwards - yet it is not brought directly on the Mizbe'ach - a clear disproof for the second Lashon of Rabah.

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