1)
(a)We established the above-mentioned Beraisa, which requires a fresh Berachah by a group that left the wine party to greet a Chasan and Kalah, like Rebbi Yehudah in another Beraisa. What do the Rabanan say there?
(b)How do we know that Rebbi Yehudah (who qualifies the Rabanan's statement with the words 'Bameh Devarim Amurim), comes to argue with them, and not just to qualify their words?
1)
(a)The Rabanan say that the group that left the wine party to greet a Chasan and Kalah - do not require a Berachah Acharonah when they leave, neither do they require a fresh Berachah when they return.
(b)We know that Rebbi Yehudah (who qualifies the Rabanan's statement with the words 'Bameh Devarim Amurim'), comes to argue with them, and not merely to qualify their words - because, whereas the 'Eimasai' of Rebbi Yehudah comes to qualify, 'Bameh Devarim Amurim' comes to argue.
2)
(a)We know that this Beraisa is speaking about things that require a Berachah Acharonah in their place, because of the Lashon 'Akru' (as we saw in the previous Beraisa). What do we deduce from the fact that the Rabanan argue with Rebbi Yehudah specifically by things that require a Berachah Acharonah in their place?
(b)Why does this Beraisa not pose a Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan, who said above that wine never needs a fresh Berachah?
(c)Would it not be preferable to argue by things that do not require a Berachah Acharonah in their place, to teach us that, even there, no fresh Berachah is required - in keeping with the principle 'Ko'ach d'Heteira Adif'?
2)
(a)From the fact that the Rabanan argue with Rebbi Yehudah specifically by things that require a Berachah Acharonah in their place - we deduce that by things that do not, require a Berachah Acharonah, a Berachah Acharonah is required before leaving one's place, and a fresh Berachah is required when they return (or if they decide to eat in their new place).
(b)This Beraisa does not pose a Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan, who said above that wine never needs a fresh Berachah - because, in his opinion, the Beraisa does not differentiate between things that require a Berachah Acharonah in their place, and things that do not (neither of which require a fresh Berachah). The reason that the Beraisa mentions 'Akru' (inferring things that require a Berachah Acharonah in their place), to teach us that even there, Rebbi Yehudah requires a fresh Berachah.
(c)It would not be preferable to argue by things which do not require a Berachah Acharonah in their place, to teach us that, even there, no fresh Berachah is required - in keeping with the principle 'Ko'ach d'Heteira Adif' - because the logic behind 'Ko'ach d'Heteira Adif' is that to permit something requires more clarity and conviction (before permitting something which appears to be forbidden - after all, it is easy to say 'Asur'). Here, the reverse is true: that it requires more clarity to be stringent and to say 'Recite a fresh Berachah'! despite the fact that it is a Chumra, than to be lenient and to exempt from reciting a fresh Berachah.
3)
(a)If a group of people are eating together on Friday afternoon and Shabbos enters, what procedure do they follow as regards Kidush and Birchas ha'Mazon ...
1. ... according to Rebbi Yehudah?
2. ... according to Rebbi Yosi?
(b)According to Rebbi Yehudah, why does one recite Kidush first?
3)
(a)If a group of people are eating together on Friday afternoon and Shabbos enters, then, as regards Kidush and Birchas ha'Mazon according to ...
1. ... Rebbi Yehudah - they first recite Kidush over one cup of wine, and then Birchas ha'Mazon (since, according to him, they are obligated to stop eating, as we learnt at the beginning of the Perek).
2. ... Rebbi Yosi - they continue to eat until nightfall. They then recite Birchas ha'Mazon over the first cup, and Kidush over the second one (Note: The fact that they recite Kidush immediately after the meal constitutes 'Kidush b'Makom Se'udah - see Tosfos DH 'Rishon').
(b)According to Rebbi Yehudah, the reason that one recites Kidush first - is because, once Kidush falls due, we do not want to delay it ('Ein Ma'avirin Al ha'Mitzvos').
102b----------------------------------------102b
4)
(a)Two cups of wine are required, one for Birchas ha'Mazon and one for Kidush. Why can both Berachos not be recited over the same cup ...
1. ... according to Rebbi Yehudah?
2. ... according to Rebbi Yosi?
4)
(a)Birchas ha'Mazon and Kidush cannot both be recited over the same cup of wine ...
1. ... according to Rebbi Yehudah - because, since one is obligated to stop eating, the Se'udah is therefore not a Se'udas Shabbos, and it is obvious that the same Kos cannot cover Kidush and Birchas ha'Mazon. (Note: After Birchas ha'Mazon, he will be obligated to wash and eat again - his Se'udas Shabbos.)
2. ... according to Rebbi Yosi - because 'Ein Osin Mitzvos (u'Berachos) Chavilos Chavilos' - which in turn, is because it looks as if he considers the Berachos a burden.
5)
(a)Why do we recite the Berachah over wine first, before that of Kidush and Havdalah?
(b)In the Havdalah service, the actual Berachah of Havdalah comes last. Why is that?
(c)Who is the author of the Beraisa which gives the Berachah of Ner precedence over that of Besamim?
5)
(a)We recite the Berachah over wine before that of Kidush and Havdalah - because of the principle 'Tadir v'she'Eino Tadir, Tadir Kodem'.
(b)In the Havdalah service, the actual Berachah of Havdalah comes last - in order to postpone the going out of Shabbos and Yom-Tov for a little longer.
(c)The author of the Beraisa which gives the Berachah of Ner precedence to that of Besamim - is Beis Shamai (according to Rebbi Yehudah).
6)
(a)What does the Tana of the Beraisa expect one to do if one has only one cup of wine for both Havdalah and Birchas ha'Mazon?
(b)Is this not a contradiction to the principle of 'Ein Osin Mitzvos Chavilos Chavilos'?
6)
(a)If one has only one cup of wine for both Havdalah and Birchas ha'Mazon - the Tana of the Beraisa expects one to wait until after one's meal, and to recite both Havdalah and Birchas ha'Mazon over that cup.
(b)This is not a contradiction to the principle of 'Ein Osin Mitzvos Chavilos Chavilos' - which is only l'Chatchilah, but does not apply when one has no choice, such as in our case, when he only has one Kos.
7)
(a)Rav says that when Yom-Tov falls after Shabbos, one says Ya.K.Ne.H? What does Ya.K.Ne.H stand for?
(b)Why does this appear to clash with the principle of 'Ein Osin Mitzvos Chavilos Chavilos'?
(c)How does the Gemara prove that Rav is speaking about the last day of Pesach, and how does that answer the Kashya?
(d)How do we refute this answer from Abaye, who says Ya.K.Ze.Na.H, and from Rava who says Ya.K.Ne.Ha.Z?
7)
(a)Ya.K.Ne.H - is the acronym of Yayin, Kidush, Ner, Havdalah.
(b)Since one is using only one Kos for both Kidush and Havdalah, this appears to clash with the principle of 'Ein Osin Mitzvos Chavilos Chavilos'.
(c)It appears from the fact that Rav does not mention Zeman ('Shehechiyanu') - that he must be speaking on the seventh day of Pesach, when it is feasible to say that he has used up all his wine, and has only one cup left - and we have already explained that in such a case, there is no problem with 'Ein Osin Mitzvos Chavilos Chavilos'.
(d)We refute this answer from Abaye, who says Ya.K.Ze.Na.H, and from Rava who says Ya.K.Ne.Ha.Z - which speak even on the first day of Yom-Tov, and yet they hold that one recites both Kidush and Havdalah over the same Kos. So the Kashya remains.
8)
(a)We ultimately make a distinction between Havdalah and Kidush on the one hand and Birchas ha'Mazon and Kidush on the other. What is the difference between them?
8)
(a)We ultimately make a distinction between Havdalah and Kidush, on the one hand, which are both Mitzvos of similar content - both come to sanctify Shabbos and Yom-Tov, once when they come in, and once when they go out (therefore they can share one Kos); whereas Havdalah and Birchas ha'Mazon on the other hand, are two separate Mitzvos which are unconnected. Therefore, they require two separate Kosos.
9)
(a)Why do none of the Amora'im who discuss the order of Kidush and Havdalah, mention Besamim?
(b)What is the reason for this?
9)
(a)None of the Amora'im who discuss the order of Kidush and Havdalah, mention Besamim - because it is not necessary to smell Besamim on Motzei Shabbos when it is followed by Yom-Tov.
(b)The reason for this is because on Yom-Tov, like on Shabbos, one merits a Neshamah Yeseirah, and does not therefore, require Besamim. This is due to the fact that, the sole reason for the Berachah over Besamim is because, following the departure of the Neshamah Yeseirah, a person feels weak -so he takes Besamim as a sort of smelling salts to revive himself (See also Tosfos DH 'Rav Amar').