1)

(a)Rabah (Ya.Ha.Ne.K) puts Yayin first (because of 'Tadir'), and Havdalah before Kidush (like Shmuel Ya.Ne.Ha.K). Why does he (as does Rav [Ya.Ke.Ne.H]) put Ner between Havdalah and Kidush?

(b)Levi (Ki.Ne.Ya.H) puts Kidush before Havdalah (like Rav). Why does he ...

1. ... move Yayin away from first place to put it third (why not second)?

2. ... put Havdalah last?

(c)On what basis does the Rashbam switch the opinions of Rabah and Levi?

1)

(a)Rabah (Ya.Ha.Ne.K) puts Ner between Havdalah and Kidush - because, seeing as the two are contradictory in terms (the one, sanctifies, the other, declares mundane), it is not befitting to place them next to each other.

(b)Levi (Ki.Ne.Ya.H) ...

1. ... moves Yayin away from first place to put it third - because, by placing it first (where it really belongs), it appears as if it does not refer to Havdalah; and Havdalah (even more than Kidush, which one can recite over bread) must be recited specifically over wine (which explains why it is placed, not second, but third).

2. ... puts Havdalah last - like we do every Motzei Shabbos.

(c)The Rashbam switch the opinions of Rabah and Levi - firstly in order to conform with Levi's opinion quoted in the Yerushalmi, and secondly, because Rav, Shmuel and Levi would be the natural order for these three Chaveirim to appear (whereas Rabah was from a later generation).

2)

(a)The Rabanan say Ki.Ya.Ne.H. They hold like Rav, who puts Kidush before Havdalah. For which two reasons would they deliberately follow Kidush with the order Ya.Ne.H?

(b)Why does ...

1. ... Mar Brei d'Revana (Ne.Ki.Ya.H), who (like Rav), puts Kidush before Havdalah and Yayin next to Havdalah (like Rabah and Levi), put Ner before Kidush?

2. ... Marsa in the name of Rav Yehoshua (Ne.Ya.Ha.K), who holds like Shmuel with regard to Havdalah before Kidush, put Ner before Yayin?

(c)The Tana, Rebbi Yehoshua ben Chananya (Ne.Ha.Ya.K) gives Havdalah precedence over Kidush (like Shmuel), and places Ner first - like the two previous opinions. Why does he put Yayin in between Havdalah and Kidush?

(d)What Mashal does Rebbi Chanina give to explain why Havdalah should precede Kidush?

2)

(a)The Rabanan, who say Ki.Ya.Ne.H, follow Kidush with the order Ya.Ne.H - either in keeping with the order of Havdalah every Motzei Shabbos; or in order to separate Havdalah from Kidush as much as possible.

(b)

1. Mar Brei d'Revana (Ne.Ki.Ya.H) puts Ner before Kidush - because, to begin with, it cannot be placed between Yayin and Havdalah, as it is every week, since, due to the fact that Kidush too, is recited, we need to place Yayin next to Havdalah (as we explained earlier). Consequently, it is appropriate put Ner first, as soon as one derives benefit from it - even before Kidush.

2. It would seem that Marsa in the name of Rav Yehoshua (Ne.Ya.Ha.K) puts Ner before Yayin - to avoid the impression that Yayin refers to Havdalah, and not to Kidush.

(c)Rebbi Yehoshua ben Chananya (Ne.Ha.Ya.K) - puts Yayin in between Havdalah and Kidush - in order that Yayin should refer to Havdalah and to Kidush (Ner, on the other hand, does not require a Kos).

(d)Rebbi Chanina compares this to a King who is leaving town (Shabbos), at the same time as the governor (Yom-Tov) is coming in - does one not first accompany the king before accompanying the governor.

3)

(a)Abaye (Ya.K.Ze.Ne.H) and Rava (.Ya.K.Ne.Ha.Z) both hold like Rav (Ya.K.Ne.H), but they argue over Zeman (Shehechiyanu) if the first day of Yom-Tov follows Shabbos. Why does ...

1. ... Abaye put Zeman before Ner?

2. ... Rava put Zeman last?

3)

(a)

1. ... Abaye puts Zeman before Ner - because, in his opinion, one should first conclude Kidush, of which Zeman is an integral part.

2. ... Rava puts it at the end - because that is where it always goes. Why? Because Zeman can be said anywhere, even in the street, and is not intrinsically attached to Kidush.

4)

(a)Seeing as, according to the Mishnah in Berachos, both Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel put Ner before Besamim, why did Rava invert the order and put Besamim first?

(b)According to Rebbi Yehudah, Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel agree that Birchas ha'Mazon comes first. Why is that?

(c)They also agree that Havdalah comes last. What then, is their Machlokes according to Rebbi Yehudah?

(d)What is Rebbi Yochanan's conclusion in this matter?

4)

(a)The author of the Mishnah in Berachos, which puts Ner before Besamim according to both Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel, is Rebbi Meir. Rava however, who inverts the order and puts Besamim first, holds like Rebbi Yehudah in a Beraisa, in whose opinion, Beis Hillel give Besamim precedence over Ner.

(b)According to Rebbi Yehudah, Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel agree that Birchas ha'Mazon comes before Havdalah - because, having eaten, he becomes obligated to recite it, and 'Ein Ma'avirin Al ha'Mitzvos'.

(c)Their Machlokes, according to him, is whether Ner comes before Besamim (Beis Shamai) or Besamim before Ner (Beis Hillel).

(d)Rebbi Yochanan concludes like Beis Hill, according to Rebbi Yehudah.

5)

(a)On what grounds did Rav Yakov bar Aba query Rava, when he recited a Berachah over the Kos shel Berachah?

(b)Why did he concede that that was the right thing to do when eating by the Resh Galusa?

(c)Rava insisted that nevertheless, he had done the right thing, because that is the ruling that was issued to Rav Beruna and Rav Chananel, the disciples of Rav. What did Rav Yeiva Saba quote Rav as saying - after they had said 'Hav Lan v'Nivrich!', and then Hav Lan v'Nishti!'?

(d)What have we proved from this episode?

5)

(a)Rav Yakov bar Aba queried Rav, when, he recited a Berachah over the Kos shel Berachah - because he had already recited a Berachah a Berachah over the cup that he had drunk earlier in the meal.

(b)He conceded however, that that was the right thing to do when eating by the Resh Galusa - because, when they would serve one cup of wine, he did not know whether they would serve him another one, in which case he did not expect to drink any more cups, and treated each cup as a separate entity.

(c)After the disciples of Rav had said 'Hav Lan v'Nivrich!' and then 'Hav Lan v'Nishti!', Rav Yeiva Saba quoted Rav as saying that, once one says 'Hav Lan v'Nivrich!', one is not permitted to drink until after Birchas ha'Mazon before he has recited Birchas ha'Mazon (according to the Rif, one is permitted to drink, but only with a fresh Berachah).

(d)We have proved from this episode that - even if, during the meal, one intends to drink another cup of wine, and no second Berachah is required, this will not be the case by someone who specifically breaks with the meal by saying 'Hav Lan v'Nivrich!', which is considered a Hesech ha'Da'as - and certainly once he has actually recited Birchas ha'Mazon. Both of these cases require a fresh Berachah over the next cup of wine.

103b----------------------------------------103b

6)

(a)Ameimar, Mar Zutra and Rav Ashi were eating together one weekday. Why did Ameimar recite a Berachah over each cup that he drank?

(b)Mar Zutra recited a Berachah over the first and the last cups. Like whom did he hold?

(c)What did Rav Ashi do?

(d)Why did he beg to differ with Mar Zutra? What proof did he bring from Rav's opinion (Ya.K.Ne.H) regarding Yom-Tov that falls after Shabbos?

6)

(a)Ameimar recited a Berachah over each cup of wine that he drank - because after each cup, he decided that he would not drink any more, and then changed his mind.

(b)Mar Zutra, who recited a Berachah over the first and the last cups - held like the Talmidim of Rav (see previous question).

(c)Rav Ashi recited a Berachah over the first cup only, which, in his opinion, covered all subsequent cups - even the last one.

(d)Mar Zutra's proof from the Talmidim of Rav is not valid, he argues, since the Halachah is not like them. How do we know that? Because when Yom-Tov falls on Motzei Shabbos, Rav himself holds Ya.K.Ne.H, and does not require a second Berachah for Havdalah; similarly, no second Berachah will be required for Birchas Hamazon after Kidush either (in other words, Rav Yeimar Saba has been proved wrong). (See Rashbam, who maintains that the Halachah is not like Rav Ashi, because Rava and Mar Zutra are considered a majority opinion.)

7)

(a)When Rava's servant lit a torch for Havdalah, Rava explained to Rav Yakov bar Aba that he had acted on his own initiative. What was Rav Yakov bar Aba's objection to that?

(b)What was the real reason that the servant kindled a torch, even though there was a light already burning?

(c)What was the text of Rebbi Yehudah ha'Nasi's Havdalah?

7)

(a)When Rava explained to Rav Yakov bar Aba that his servant had acted on his own initiative - Rav Yakov bar Aba argued that the servant would not have kindled the torch, if he had not heard from his master that that was the correct thing to do.

(b)The real reason that he kindled a torch, even though there was a light already burning - was because it is a Mitzvah to use a torch for Havdalah.

(c)The text of Rebbi Yehudah ha'Nasi's Havdalah was 'Baruch ... Hamavdil Bein Kodesh l'Chol'.

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