1)

(a)Why does Rebbi Shimon permit Eishes Achiv she'Lo Hayah b'Olamo who was born after the second brother performed Yibum?

(b)What problem do we then have with regard to the Isur of Achoso me'Imo?

(c)How do we solve the problem? Why does Rebbi Shimon say his Sevara by the Isur of Eishes Achiv she'Lo Hayah b'Olamo, but not by Achoso me'Imo, whose paternal brother married her before he was born, and who now falls to Yibum?

2)

(a)The Mishnah now discusses Isur Mitzvah and Isur Kedushah. What is ...

1. ... Isur Mitzvah?

2. ... Isur Kedushah?

(b)What is the Halachic difference between an Isur Ervah on the one hand, and an Isur Mitzvah and Isur Kedushah on the other (regarding Yibum)?

(c)The Tana also states 'Achosah she'Hi Yevimtah, Choletzes O Misyabemes'. What is the case?

(d)Why is this not forbidden because of Achos Zekukah of an Ervah?

3)

(a)The Mishnah gives an example of Isur Kedushah as 'Almanah l'Kohen Gadol, Gerushah va'Chalutzah l'Kohen Hedyot'. How is it possible for a Gerushah to fall to her husband's brother who is a Kohen, to Yibum?

(b)Is it necessary to say the same thing regarding the case of 'Almanah l'Kohen Gadol'?

(c)Which other cases of Chayavei Lavin does the Tana list?

(d)From where do we learn that Chayavei Lavin fall to Yibum in the first place, seeing as they cannot fulfill the Mitzvah?

4)

(a)The Mishnah opens with the words 'Klal Amru bi'Yevamah, Kol she'Isurah Isur Ervah'. According to Rafram bar Papa, this comes to include Tzaras Aylonis in the Din of Isur Ervah, like Rav Asi whom we discussed in the first Perek). How do others quote Rafram?

(b)What does our Mishnah mean when it says 'Achosah she'Hi Yevimtah, Choletzes O Misyabemes'? Why must the Tana be referring to the sister of Isur Ervah (at the beginning of the Mishnah), and not to the sister of Isur Mitzvah (which immediately precedes our case)?

(c)What does Abaye say, to explain why the Tana refers to ...

1. ... Sheniyos as 'Isur Mitzvah'?

2. ... Almanah l'Kohen Gadol ... as 'Isur Kedushah'?

(d)Rebbi Yehudah in a Beraisa switches the descriptions. According to him, why does the Tana refer to ...

1. ... Almanah l'Kohen Gadol ... as 'Isur Mitzvah'?

2. ... Sheniyos as 'Isur Kedushah'?

5)

(a)What is wrong with saying that, according to Rebbi Yehudah, Isur Sheniyos are referred to as 'Isur Kedushah' because anyone who fulfills the words of the Chachamim is called 'holy'?

6)

(a)An Almanah l'Kohen Gadol incorporates both the Lav of "Almanah Lo Yikach" and an Aseh. What is the Aseh?

(b)What is then the problem with the presumption that we are talking about both an Almanah who was married who fell to the Kohen Gadol, and one who was only betrothed?

(c)How does Rav Gidal Amar Rav initially resolve this from the superfluous word "v'Alsah Yevimto ha'Sha'arah"?

(d)And from where do we know that this Derashah does not incorporate Chayavei Kares?

(e)On what grounds do we include Chayavei Lavin (from "Yevimto") for Chalitzah only, but preclude Chayavei Kares (from "Im Lo Yachpotz")?

20b----------------------------------------20b

7)

(a)In light of the fact that a Yavam who performs Yibum with a Chayavei Lavin, does not acquire her, and her Tzarah is not free to marry l'Shuk, how does Rava explain the Beraisa 'Isur Mitzvah v'Isur Kedushah Ba Alehah O Chalatz Lah, Nifterah Tzarasah'?

(b)What does the Beraisa say with regard to a Petzu'a Daka, a Kerus Shafchah or a Seris Chamah (all of whom are forbidden with a Lav to marry a bas Yisrael) that refutes the current theory (that Chayavei Lavin cannot perform Yibum mid'Oraisa from "Yevimto")?

8)

(a)What does the Tana of the above Beraisa mean when he says with regard to Chayavei Lavin 'O Choltzin O Meyabmin'?

(b)Why does the Tana include a Zaken in the list? Is he also among the Chayavei Lavin?

(c)The Tana also adds that Ma'amar, a Get and Chalitzah are all effective. In what way is a Get effective on a Yevamah? Does it allow her to marry l'Shuk?

(d)Is a Yavam permitted to remain with the Yevamah, if he performs Yibum ...

1. ... with a Chayavei Lavin?

2. ... when he is a Zaken?

9)

(a)We now see from the Beraisa that Chayavei Lavin are also subject to Yibum min ha'Torah. According to Rava's initial explanation, Chayavei Lavin may perform Yibum, and Almanah l'Kohen Gadol is different, because there is also an Aseh. Which Aseh?

(b)Why can we not preclude Mamzeres and Nesinah from Yibum because they too, are included in the Aseh of "v'Hiskadishtem" in Shemini?

10)

(a)According to Rava's next statement (that Chazal forbade certain cases of Chayavei Lavin because of a decree), why can the following not perform Yibum:

1. ... Almanah min ha'Erusin?

2. ... Mamzeres u'Nesinah?

(b)According to that, why do we not decree ...

1. ... the wife of his paternal brother on account of his maternal brother?

2. ... a woman who does not have children on account of one who does?

3. ... the wife of a brother who lived at the same time as the Yavam, on account of one who did not?

4. ... all women who can have children on account of an Aylonis?

(c)What discrepancy do we now have between what we just said and the fact that a Mamzeres and Nesinah l'Yisrael cannot perform Yibum?

11)

(a)What reason does Rava finally give for Chayavei Lavin being precluded from Yibum?

(b)What does the Beraisa say that corroborates Rava's statement?

12)

(a)Rava retracts however from this (in spite of the Beraisa), due to a statement made by Resh Lakish (though others ascribe this Kashya to Rav Ashi). Which statement?

(b)What alternative does the Yavam have here (that makes Yibum comparable to Resh Lakish's ruling)?

(c)On what grounds do we refute Rava and Resh Lakish?

13)

(a)Rebbi Yochanan and Rebbi Elazar argue over whether the Yibum performed by a Kohen Gadol on his Yevamah who is an Almanah exempts her Tzarah from Yibum. Which kind of Almanah are they arguing over? What is the basis of their Machlokes?

(b)The Beraisa of 'Im Ba'alu, Kanu' proves that Chayavei Lavin are in fact, subject to Yibum min ha'Torah. Why does it not also prove Resh Lakish (who says that whenever one has the fulfilling the Aseh without negating the Lav, one is obligated to do so) wrong? Why do we not force the Yavam to perform Chalitzah?