1)
(a)In the second approach, we assume that, if both Rebbi Yosi Hagelili and Rebbi Akiva were to hold 'Hakafah b'Regel', then even Rebbi Akiva would learn Penim from Chutz. What then, is Rebbi Akiva's reason?
(b)Alternatively, they both agree that 'Hakafah b'Yad'. What is then the basis of their Machlokes?
(c)This explanation is rejected however, because of Rebbi Eliezer in our Mishnah. What does Rebbi Eliezer say, and why does this render the last explanation unacceptable?
(d)There were two Kohanim Gedolim, one of whom claimed that he made Hakafah b'Yad (like Rebbi Akiva), whilst the other claimed to have made Hakafah b'Regel (like Rebbi Yosi Hagelili). What reason did each one give to support his opinion?
1)
(a)In the second approach, we assume that, if both Rebbi Yosi Hagelili and Rebbi Akiva were to hold Hakafah b'Regel, then even Rebbi Akiva would learn Penim from Chutz. The reason that, according to Rebbi Akiva, the Kohen Gadol moves to the left is because, in his opinion, Hakafah b'Yad (and we do not learn Yad from Regel in this regard).
(b)Alternatively, they both agree that Hakafah b'Yad - and, whereas Rebbi Yosi Hagelili does learn Yad from Regel in this regard, Rebbi Akiva does not. (Note: According to this answer too, we will have to apply the Sevara that we gave at the end of the previous Amud (as to why he has to go to the left.)
(c)We reject this explanation however, because Rebbi Eliezer in our Mishnah holds 'Hakafah b'Yad', implying that the Tana Kama (whom we have already identified as Rebbi Yosi Hagelili) holds 'Hakafah b'Regel'.
(d)One Kohen Gadol claimed that he made Hakafah b'Regel - comparing the "Saviv" of the Mizbe'ach ha'Penimi to the "Saviv" of the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon. The other one claimed that he made Hakafah b'Yad - because the Mizbe'ach ha'Penimi was the same size as one of the Keranos of the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon (and when sprinkling on one Keren, he did not walk round it but stood still).
2)
(a)The author of our Mishnah, who quotes Rebbi Eliezer as saying that the Kohen Gadol moved his hand upwards on all of the corners except for the one at which he was standing, is Rebbi Yehudah. How does Rebbi Meir quote him?
(b)What is Rebbi Meir's reason by the three corners? Why then, does he move his hand upwards by the furthest corner?
2)
(a)The author of our Mishnah, who quotes Rebbi Eliezer as saying that the Kohen Gadol moved his hand upwards on all of the corners except for the one at which he was standing, is Rebbi Yehudah. According to Rebbi Meir - Rebbi Eliezer holds that, the Kohen Gadol moved his hand downwards by all the corners except for the furthest corner (that was diagonally opposite him).
(b)Rebbi Meir's reason by the corner nearest to him is the same as Rebbi Yehudah's (to prevent the blood from flowing up his sleeve); and on the two adjacent corners he continues with the same pattern as he began. The reason that he changes by the furthest corner, to move his hand upwards - is because it is easier for the Kohen Gadol to do that.
3)
(a)'Hizah Mimenu al Taharo shel Mizbe'ach'. What do we initially think 'Taharo shel Mizbe'ach' means?
(b)The Gemara brings a proof from the vernacular- 'Tahar Tihara'. What does 'Tahar Tihara' mean?
(c)We reject this from a Beraisa, which says that Kohen Gadol does not sprinkle the blood on to ashes or coals. Where then, does he sprinkle it?
(d)Based on the Pasuk in Mishpatim "u'che'Etzem ha'Shamayim la'Tohar", how do we now explain 'Taharo shel Mizbe'ach'?
3)
(a)'Hizah Mimenu al Taharo shel Mizbe'ach' - We initially explain 'Taharo shel Mizbe'ach to mean the middle of the Mizbe'ach - i.e. half-way up the wall of the Mizbe'ach.
(b)The Gemara brings a proof from the vernacular- 'Tahar Tihara' - which means the middle of the day.
(c)We reject this from a Beraisa, which says that the Kohen Gadol does not sprinkle on to ashes or coals - but only on to a part of the Mizbe'ach that has been cleared.
(d)Based on the Pasuk in Mishpatim "u'che'Etzem ha'Shamayim la'Tohar" (which means "like the vision of the heaven for clarity"), we now explain 'Taharo shel Mizbe'ach' to mean the part of the Mizbe'ach that has been cleared of ashes and coals.
4)
(a)According to Chananya, the Kohen Gadol would sprinkle the blood all seven times on the north of the (top of the) Mizbe'ach ha'Penimi. What does Rebbi Yosi say?
(b)What are their respective reasons?
(c)How is this derived from the Pasuk "v'Tiharo v'Kidsho"?
4)
(a)According to Chananya, the Kohen Gadol would sprinkle the blood all seven times on the north of the (top of the) Mizbe'ach ha'Penimi - whereas according to Rebbi Yosi, he would sprinkle it on the south.
(b)Chananya holds that the entrance to the Amah Teraksin was in the south - so he would begin placing the blood on the south-eastern corner, and conclude by the north-eastern one (like Rebbi Akiva on the previous Amud), where he would now sprinkle the seven on top of the Mizbe'ach. Whereas Rebbi Yosi holds that the entrance was in the north (as we saw above) (like Rebbi Yosi Hagelili) - in which case, he would begin placing the blood on the north-eastern corner, and conclude with the south-east, so that he would now sprinkle seven times on the south.
(c)This is derived from the Pasuk "v'Tiharo v'Kidsho" - which teaches us that there where the Kidush (i.e. the placing of the blood on the corners) ends, that is where the Taharah (the seven Haza'os) begins.
5)
(a)The Pasuk writes in Acharei-Mos (with regard to the Par Kohen Mashi'ach) "v'es Kol Dam ha'Par Yishpoch el Yesod Mizbe'ach ha'Olah Asher Pesach Ohel Mo'ed". To which Yesod does this refer?
(b)What do we learn from the redundant word "ha'Par" (since the Torah could have written "Damo")?
(c)From where do we learn that the leftover blood of the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon was poured on the one Amah of the southern Yesod?
5)
(a)The Kohen Gadol would pour out the blood on the western Yesod of the Mizbe'ach. The Gemara quotes the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "v'es Kol Dam ha'Par Yishpoch el Yesod Mizbe'ach ha'Olah Asher Pesach Ohel Mo'ed" - which refers to the western Yesod, since that was the one that faced the opening of the Kodesh.
(b)From the word "ha'Par" we include the Par of Yom Kippur.
(c)We learn that the leftover blood of the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon was poured on the one Amah of the southern Yesod - from the previous Halachah (by the blood of the two Parim); just as in that case, the Shirayim was poured on the nearest Yesod (i.e. the western one), so too, was the Shirayim of the Mizbe'ach poured on to the nearest Yesod (i.e. the southern one).
6)
(a)Rebbi Yishmael holds that all leftover blood (even from the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon) was poured on to the western Yesod. From where does he learn that?
(b)And according to Rebbi Shimon, they were all poured on to the southern Yesod. From where does he learn that?
(c)What does the Gemara comment on the fact that, in Rebbi Shimon's Beis Hamedrash, they quoted Rebbi Yishmael as saying that all the blood had to be poured on to the southern Yesod? What does that statement signify?
6)
(a)Rebbi Yishmael holds that all leftover blood (even from the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon) was poured on to the western Yesod - because he learns what is not specified (the Shirayim of the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon) to what is (the Shirayim of the Mizbe'ach ha'Penimi).
(b)And according to Rebbi Shimon, they were all poured on to the southern Yesod - because, according to him, the entrance to the Amah Teraksin was in the south - which made the southern Yesod the one that was "Pesach Ohel Mo'ed", and not the western one.
(c)In Rebbi Shimon's Beis Hamedrash, they quoted Rebbi Yishmael as saying that all the blood had to be poured on to the southern Yesod - on which the Gemara comments as a Siman 'Mashchuha Gavri l'Gavra', meaning that Rebbi Shimon's disciples managed to persuade Rebbi Yishmael to switch his view over to theirs.
59b----------------------------------------59b
7)
(a)The authors of our Mishnah, which says that someone who uses the leftover blood after it has flowed out of the Beis Hamikdash via the water of the Amah, is Mo'el, are Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Shimon. What do the Chachamim hold?
(b)According to Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Shimon, is the Me'ilah mid'Oraisa or mid'Rabanan?
(c)Is there any practical difference (besides the Korban) between Me'ilah d'Oraisa and Me'ilah d'Rabanan?
7)
(a)The authors of our Mishnah, which says that someone who uses the leftover blood after it has flowed out of the Beis Hamikdash via the water of the Amah, is Mo'el, are Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Shimon. According to the Chachamim - he is not Mo'el.
(b)Even according to Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Shimon - the Me'ilah is only mid'Rabanan.
(c)By Me'ilah d'Oraisa, one is obligated to pay an extra fifth, but not by Me'ilah d'Rabanan.
8)
(a)What does Ula learn from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "va'Ani Nesativ Lachem" (with regard to blood)?
(b)How does ...
1. ... Tana d'Bei Rebbi Shimon learn the same thing from "Lechaper"?
2. ... Rebbi Yochanan learn it from "Ki ha'Dam Hu ba'Nefesh Yechaper"?
(c)In the previous Derashah, why can we not say the opposite: to compare after the Kaparah to before it - i.e. that Me'ilah should be effective even after the Kaparah has been concluded?
8)
(a)Ula learns from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "va'Ani Nesativ Lachem" - that min ha'Torah, there is no Me'ilah by the blood of Kodshim, which is therefore permitted.
(b)
1. ... Tana d'Bei Rebbi Shimon learns from "Lechaper" - that Hash-m gave us the blood as an atonement, but not to be Mo'el for using it.
2. ... Rebbi Yochanan learns from "Ki ha'Dam Hu ba'Nefesh Yechaper" - that the blood retains the same status throughout: just as it is permitted after it has atoned (because once the Mitzvah has been completed, it is no longer called 'Kodshei Hashem'), so too, is it permitted even before it has atoned.
(c)In the previous Derashah, we cannot reverse the Limud: to compare after the Kaparah to before it - i.e. that Me'ilah should be effective even after the Kaparah has been concluded - because there is nothing whose Mitzvah has been completed that is still subject to Me'ilah.