"Se'u es Rosh Kol Adas B'nei Yisrael". Why did Hashem order the counting of Yisrael at this time?
Rashi (on Pasuk #1): Because Hashem was coming to rest His Shechinah on them, 1 one month after the Mishkan was erected.
Rashbam (on Pasuk 2): Because they were about to enter Eretz Yisrael, 2 and begin the conquest of the land and all those above the age of twenty (who were being counted) were eligible for conscription.
Seforno (on Pasuk 2): To prepare them to enter Eretz Yisrael and to posses it without raising a sword. 3
Moshav Zekenim: [He would have counted them earlier, only, until now, they were busy with building the Mishkan, erecting it, and with the Korbanos of the Nesi'im and Chanukas ha'Mizbe'ach. 4
Oznayim la'Torah #1: To elevate their status to tha hosts of Hashem - like the hosts of angels that came down at Matan Torah surrounding the Merkavah.
Oznayim la'Torah #2: To demonstrate to the nations of the world their pure family lineage. 5
Oznayim la'Torah #3. Refer to 1:1:6:3.
See Sifsei Chachamim.
Rashbam: See Beha'aloscha, 10:11 & 29.
Seforno: Because had they not sinned by the Meraglim, the Cana'anim would all have fled - as indeed some of them (the Girgashi) ultimately did, as the Pasuk states in Yeshayah, 17:9. See also Rashi in Devarim, 1:8. However, during the forty years that Yisrael were in the desert they deteriorated to such an extent that, when Yisrael entered the land, they had to be destroyed.
This seems to clash with the Midrash that the work for the Mishkan was completed on the twenty-fifth of Kislev. Refer to Sh'mos 39:32:1:1*. Moreover, He could have counted them after Pesach! (PF).
In answer to their question as to why the Shechinah dwelt with Yisrael and not with them. See Oznayim la'Torah.
"Se'u es Rosh Kol Adas B'nei Yisrael". Hashem counted Yisrael when they left Egypt and after they fell at the Eigel. Why did He need to count them at every opportunity?
Rashi #1: It is a sign that Hashem loves Yisrael. 1 Consequently, one month after He rested His Shechinah on them (on the first of Nisan), He counted them again.
Rashi #2 (in Pinchas, 26:1) and Moshav Zekenim: Hashem appointed Moshe over B'nei Yisrael. It is normal to count a flock when it is given to a shepherd, and when he returns them. 2 :
R. Bachye (citing Midrash Tanchuma): Hashem counts Yisrael due to his love of Ya'akov 3 , as He specifically said to him 4 'You are precious in My Eyes, which is why I fixed your image in My Throne of Glory, and the angels praise Me by your name and declare'Baruch Hashem Elokei Yisrael min ha'Olam ve'asd ha'Olam!". This can be compared to a king who asked one of his counselors to count the number of Kurim in his wheat granary, whilst ignoring what his numerous granaries of straw and stubble contained. 5
Da'as Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim #1 (both on Pasuk 2 and both citing the B'chor Shor): He counted them now because the previous censuses did not detail the total number of each tribe.
Hadar Zekenim: Hashem did not actually count them when they left Egypt, only the Torah said that there were approximately six hundred thousand men. This is actually the first census, which is synonymous with the count mentioned in Pekudei, where it was mentioned due to the calculation of the silver.
Ramban (on Pasuk 45): Based on Iyov, 12:23 & 5:18, that love is expressed by the fact that, although when He punishes the nations of the world, He destroys them, when He punishes Yisrael, He crushes them temporarily and withdraws.
Which is why Hashem will count Yisrael again (in Perek 26) shortly before Moshe's death.
This answer explains why Hashem counts Yisrael - Perhaps it is also the reason that He counts them on every occasion.
Yeshayah 43:4 "me'asher Yakarta be'Einnai Nichbadta va'Ani Ahavticha!"
See R. Bachye who elaborates, concluding that, as opposed the B'nei Eisav, who is compared to straw - See Ovadyah 1:18 - Yisrael are 'pure wheat', they are Tadikim, as the Navi writes in Yeshayah 60:21 "ve'Mech Kulam Tzadikim le'Olam Yirshu Aretz" - That explains why he counts them all.
What are the implications of the words "Se'u es Rosh ... "?
Rashi, Targum Onkekos and Targum Yonasan: It is synonymous with the Lashon "ki Sissa es Rosh". Refer to Sh'mos 30:12:1:1.
Ramban (citing Midrash Rabah) 1 : 'Like one says to an executioner - Remove the head of P'loni!' This refers to the scenario where, if Yisrael do not merit it, they will all die. 2 Whereas in the event that they do merit it, Hashem will raise them to greatness. 3
The Ramban initially cites Rashi, although it is not in our version of Rashi.
Ramban: Like Yosef told the chief baker (Bereishis 40:19) "The king will remove your head from on you and hang you on a tree."
Ramban: Like Yosef told the chief butler 'Par'oh will raise your head and return you to your post!'
What is the significance of the word "le'Mishpechosam"?
Rashi: "Le'Mishpechosam" in this Pasuk actually refers to the tribes and not to the families.
What are the connotations of "le'Veis Avosam"?
Rashi and R. Bachye: It means that someone whose father is from Reuven and his mother, from Shimon is counted with the tribe of Reuven 1 (['Mishpachas ha'Av Keruyah Mishapachah], Mishpachas ha'Eim Einah Keruyah Mishpachah!' - R. Bachye).
See Torah Temimah, note 1, who elborates..
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "be'Mispar Sheimos"?
Ramban (in Pasuk 18) 1 : Because it was necessary to clarify the Yichus of each individual member of each family. 2
Seforno: Because every individual in that generation was counted by name, 3 since each one was a personality in his own right. 4
Oznayim la'Torah: Based on Bava Basra, 117a, that Eretz Yisrael was distributed according to those who left Egypt - and who were counted here, and according to the Rashbam there, who explains that, when they entered Eretz Yisrael, someone who had one son inherited his father's portion whereas if someone had ten sons, they inherited their father's portion between them, the Torah needs to stress that these are the ones who would receive a portion in Eretz Yisrael - to which end the Torah writes "be'Mispar Sheimos". 5
Ramban: This was not necessary by the second census which took place in the fortieth year, by which time their names were already well-known (See Ramban DH 'Vayisyaldu ... ').
Seforno: In the same way as the Torah writes in Ki Sisa, Sh'mos 33:17 "va'Eda'acha be'Sheim".
Seforno: This was not the case for the next generation, which explains why the Torah does not insert "be'Mispar Sheimos" in Pinchas, 26:2. See Seforno. See also Ba'al ha'Turim.
Why did Hashem say "be'Mispar Sheimos" and not 'be'Mispar Shemosam", like He will say in 3:40?
R. Bachye: Because it refers also to the four parallel camps of Mal'achim who descended on Har Sinai at Matan Torah, corresponding to the four camps of Yisrael, whosw numbers equalled those of Yisrael. 1
Yisrael at Har Sinai resembled the hosts of Mal'achim, which is why in Pasuk #3 the Torah writes "Tifkdu osam le'Tziv'osam". See R. Bachye who elaborates.
What are the connotations of the word "le'Gulgelosam"?
