Whenever Moshe came before Par'oh, Aharon accompanied him. So why does the Torah need to mention him independently?
Ramban (citing the Ibn Ezra): Because Par'oh would shortly recall them, before expelling them both - the only time that he ever did that.
"Ad Masai Me'anta Le'anos mi'Panai"? Why did Hashem demand use specifically the term 'submission'?
R. Bachye: Because that is what Hashem expects from every human-being ? that he submit to Him, 1 as the Navi writes in Yeshayah 66:2 "ve'el Zeh Abit, el Ani u'Nechei Ru'ach ve'Chared al Devarai!", and in Tehilim 51:19 "Lev Nishbar ve'Nidkeh". 2
R. Bachye: Hence we find that, when the wicked idolater Achov humbled himself before Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu, the destruction of his entire family was postponed until the following generation and took place only in the time of his son, as opposed to Nevuchadnetzar, who refused to humble himself ? See R. Bachye ? and to Par'oh, who perished on account of his pride.
See R. Bachye, who elaborates further.
What did Moshe mean when he asked Par'oh how long it would take to humble himself before Him?
Rashi: Par'oh was already beginning to waver before Hashem's might, because he could not bear the devastation caused by the plagues. 1 The objective of the plagues, however, was (not to bring Par'oh to his knees for fear of the punishment, but) to cause him to acknowledge Hashem. 2
Seforno: If even now, when Hashem had demonstrated His supremacy over the atmosphere (without which one cannot live for even one moment), Par'oh could not bring himself to humble himself before Hashem, no plague on earth would bring that about; but perhaps a prolonged dosage of Makos would do the trick. Hence the question, "How long will it take ... "?
Elsewhere, Hashem is called "Elokei Yisrael." Why here did Moshe and Aharon call him "Elokei ha'Ivrim"?
Moshav Zekenim #1: The root of the name Yisrael is 'Serarah' (supremacy) - not appropriate as long as they were still slaves.
Moshav Zekenim #2: Since Yisrael retained their language, Hashem placed His Name upon them with the name of their language - 'Ivris.'
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "Lei'anos - As Targum translates, 'to be submissive,' from the word "Ani" (poor); [i.e.] you have refused to be poor and lowly before Me." How else might I have translated?
Gur Aryeh: "Lei'anos" could have meant 'suffering' ('Inuy' - meaning 'how long shall you refuse to suffer before Me'); or it could mean 'subjugation;' 1 but neither of these is what Hashem wanted of Par'oh. He wanted Par'oh to be humbled, and to submit. 2
Gur Aryeh: As in Bereishis 16:9.
We know this from grammar as well. Any expression of "Inuy" (suffering) will have a Dagesh in the letter Nun - which the word "Lei'anos" does not. (CS)
