Why did Moshe add the (otherwise superfuous) word "Banav ha'Nosarim"?
Rashi #1: To teach us that Elazar and Isamar survived the decree to die due to Aharon's participation in the sin of the Golden Calf. 1
Rashi #2 (in Chagigash, 11b), and Targum Yonasan 2 : Because Elazaar and Isamar were standing beside Nadav and Avihu when they brought the Ketores and it was only due to a miracle that they were saved from the fire (due to the merit of their father Aharon ? Yoma, 87a, or because Hashem had pity on him ? Rashi, in Chagigah, 11b).
Rashi: As the Torah indicates in Eikev Devarim, 9:20 - "where the word "Le'hashmido" refers to the death of all of Aharon's sons. And it was only due to Moshe's Tefilah that Elazar and Isamar were spared (as Moshe himself explained).
See Torah Temimah citing Yoma, 87b and note 29.
Since when do gron-up children die for the sin of their father?
Seeing as Elazar and Isamar did noqt sin, why did they need Moshe?s Tefilah to save them from the death-sentence?
With reference to 10:12:1.1:1, although they had not sinned, the death-sentence hung over them in abeyance, and would take effect whenever they sinned in the future. Moshe?s Tefilah served to remove the threat. 1
Indeed, we find that Elazar sinned ? Refer to Bamidbar 27:21:4:1 ? and was punished, but did not die.
Seeing as Moshe had already spoken to Aharon's sons in Pasuk 6, why does the Torah write "Banav ha'Nosarin" only now?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because in Pasuk 6, he instructed them not to let their hair grow long or to rent their Begadim, and it is only after they accepted it in Pasuk 7, that they truly became Nosarim.
Which Minchah is "ha'Minchah" referring to?
Rashi: It is referring to both Minchas Shemini and the Minchah of Nachshon. 1
Ramban (on 9:17): The Minchas Nedavah of the people (besides the Minchas Nesachim of the Korban Tamid). 2
See Naso Bamidbar, 7:12 & 13. It is not referring to the Minchah of Rosh Chodesh, since it was not brought on account of the Milu'im (See Sifsei Chachamim).
Oznayim la'Torah: Which had been taken to the south-western corner of the Mizbe'ach and was left there after the Kemitzah
Why did Moshe find it necessary to instruct them to eat the Minchah?
Rashi (on Pasuk 19): Because, although a Kohen Gadol who is an Onen is permitted to bring Korbanos, he is not permitted to eat them.
Seeing as all S'tam Menachos are brought as Matzos, why did Moshe need to add the word " ve?Ichluhah Matzos "?
Rashi: Because this Minchah was unique, inasmuch as it was a one-time Minchas Tzibur.
Does this mean that they had to eat the Matzos standing beside the Mizbe'ach?
Sifra: In fact, they were permitted to eat it anywhere in the Azarah 1 ? and the Torah writes "Eitzel ha'Mizbe'ach" to preclude a. the Heichal, and b. on top of the Mizbe'ach.
Zevachim, 61a: In fact, they were permitted to eat it anywhere in the Azarah ? and the Torah writes "Eitzel ha'Mizbe'ach" to teach us that they were only permitted to eat Sheyarei Minchah provided the Mizbe'ach was KAsher, but not if part of it was missing.
Oznayim la'Torah #1: In fact, they were permitted to eat it anywhere in the Azarah, and the Torah writes "Eitzel ha'Mizbe'ach" to teach us that the Achilah of the Kohanim atones no less than the Achilah of the Mizbe'ach.
Oznayim la'Torah #2 (according to the Ramban) 2 : In fact, they were permitted to eat it anywhere in the Azarah, only Moshe was now telling Aharon and his sons that they were permitted to eat the Minchah there next to the Mizbe'ach and that they did not need to take it anywhere else.
Why does the Torah add "Ki Kodesh Kodshim Hi"?
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that Nadav and Avihu were already Chayav Misah due to Chet ha'Egel. But R. Eliezer says that they were liable for ruling in front of their Rebbi?
