Seeing as the Torah is discussing a Neveilah, why does it need to insert "ve'Chi Yamus min ha?Beheimah"?
Nidah, 56a: To teach us that a Neveilah is only Metamei as long as it is still moist ? like it was when it died. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 162.
Why does the Pasuk repeat the word "be'Nivlasah"?
Rashi: To preclude the bones, the sinews, the horns the hoofs and the skin from Tum'as Neveilah.
Why does the Torah insert the word "Min ha'Beheimah"?
Rashbam (citing Chulin, 74a): To preclude a T'reifah animal that one Shechts, from Tum'as Neveilah. 1
Targum Yonasan: To incorporate a limb 2 that separated from a live animal in the Din of Tum'as Neveilah.
Why does the Torah add "Asher hi lachem le'Ochlah"?
Shabbos, 136a: It teaches us that an eighth-month fetus does not become permitted with the Shechitah of its mother. 1
Chulin, 70b: "Min ha'Beheimah" refers to non-Kasher animals and "Asher Hi lachem le'Ochlah", to Kasher ones. The Torah compares them to teach us that, just as the fetus of a Kasher animal is Tahor, 2 so is that of a non-Kasher animal.
Why does the Torah write "ha'Beheimah Asher Hi lachem le'Ochlah", and not simply "ha'Beheimah ha'Tehorah"?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because the only eason the animal is 'Tahor' is because it can be eaten by a Yisrael, which is also the reason that it remains Tahor if it is Shechted. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah who elaborates.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "asher Hi Lachem le?Ochlah"?
And the Gemara there, on 125a learns Masa from Maga ? inasmuch as whatever is not subject to Maga is not subject to Masa either.
Seeing as the Torah is discussing an animal that died, why does it insert the word "ha'Noge'a be'Nivlasah"?
Chulin, 126a: To teach us that, although the bone of a Neveilah is not Metamei be'Maga, a thigh-bone that contains a hole, even the size of a hair-breadth is Metamei, since it is possible to touch the marrow inside.
