ve'he'Anan Sar me'al ha'Ohel". Which Cloud is this referring to?
R. Bachye: It must refer to the Cloud that traveled with Yisrael in the desert (the Ananei Kavod) - because if it referred to the Cloud that descended in front of the Ohel Mo'ed in honor of Moshe, why did the Torah write "me'al ha'Ohel" and not 'mi'Pesach ha'Ohel'?
If "he'Anan" refers to the Cloud that traveled with Yisrael in the desert, why did they not travel when it rose?
R. Bachye: Because it only moved from the Ohel 1 to demonstrate that they were due to travel and that they delayed their departure for seven days in honor of the Tzadekes Miriam.
Seforno: Because they realized that the Cloud only rose in order to distance Miriam.
Da'as Zekenim: The Ananei Kavod only rose but did not depart in honor of Moshe.
Hadar Zekenim and Targum Yonasan: The Ananei Kavod (the Mishkan, the Aron and all Yisrael - Targum Yonasan) did not depart in honor of Miriam.
But did not rise. See R. Bachye.
What is the significance of the fact that Miriam became a Metzora after the Cloud (and the Shechinah) departed?
Rashi: It can be compared to a king who instructed his son's tutor to punish his son, but only after he (the king) had left - because his heart went out to his son.
Seforno: To distance the Shecinah from Miriam, to encourage Yisrael to send her out of the camp in order to shame her.
Ba'al ha'Turim: So that the Shechinah should not see Miriam in the time of her degradation. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: Refer to 12:1:2:1**. In keeping with the Mishnah in Nega'im, 2:2 - that the Kohen is not permitted to examine Nega'im on a cloudy day. 2
Why was Miri'am stricken with the most severe form of Tzara'as - white like snow?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because, despite the fact that Miriam loved Moshe and spoke without malice, 1 Hashem tends to deal harshly with Tzadikim, punishing them - precisely because they are Tzadikim - 'like a hair's-breadth'.
See Oznayim la'Torah DH 've'Hinei Miriam ... ', who elaborates.
Seeing as Aharon had also spoken about Moshe, why was Miriam stricken and not Aharon?
R. Bachye (on Pasuk #1) #1: Because he merely seconded Miriam's claims 1 or because he was actually silent. 2
R. Bachye (on Pasuk #1) #2: Aharon was also stricken with Tzara'as - since the Torah wrote - in Pask #9 - "Vayichar Af Hashem Bam " 3 - only by Miriam, who began speaking about Moshe, the punishment was publicized, whereas by Aharon, it was not.
Hadar Zekenim: Refer to 12:10:151:1.
Refer lso to 12:1:2:1**.
It is not then cleat why the Torah writes "Vatedaber Miriam ve'Aharon"?
R. Bachye: Which when written in connection with Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu always has repercussions.
Why does the Torah omit the word "ka'Sheleg" (the second time)?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because Aharon, who was able to cure Tzara'as by looking at it intensely (Sifri Zuta), 1 looked at Miria'm's Tzara'as, and, although he was unable to cure it completely, he did succeed in lessening its appearance from 'like snow' to one of the three less severe forms of Tzara'as.
See Oznayim la'Torah.
What is the meaning of "Vayifen Aharon"? Where did he turn from?
Hadar Zekenim: He turned from his Tzara'as, with which he had also been stricken 1 but from which he had already been healed.
As the Gemara in Shabbos, 97a extrapolates from the word "Vayichar Af Hashem Bam" (incorporating Aharon).
If Aharon was also stricken with Tzara'as, why does the Torah not say so?
