What did Hashem mean when He said "Peh el Peh Adaber bo"?
Rashi #1 and Targum Yonasan: He meant that He specifically instructed Moshe to separate from his wife. 1
Rashi #2 (in Iyov, 4:12): It can be compared to a man who had a wife and a concubine. He came to his wife openly, but to his concubine, he came secretly. So too Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu, regarding the prophets of the Nochrim, the Torah describes how He appeared to Avimelech 2 and to Lavan 3 in a dream of the night; 4 Whereas by the Nevi'ei Yisrael, the Torah writes "Peh El Peh Adaber Bo."
Ramban: He meant that when He spoke with Moshe, He spoke with him mouth to mouth - and not in riddles.
Seforno: It means that Hashem spoke with him with the Name 'Hashem' even whilst he was awake.
Moshav Zekenim (in Sh'mos 19:15): Some say that this shows that Hashem agreed with Moshe. 5 However, the Midrash implies that He explicitly told him to separate.
Shabbos, 87a: It means that when Moshe separated from his wife, Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu gave him His full consent.
Rashi: See Devarim 5:27 & 28. See answer #6. See Torah Temimah, note 6, who cites the Sifri and elaborates.
Ramban: See Bereishis 20:3.
Ramban: See Bereishis 31:24.
See also 24:4.
Since I will speak with him directly, he needed to separate. (PF)
What was Hashem referring to when He said "u'Mar'eh ve'Lo ve'Chidos"?
Seforno: Bearing in mind that the other prophets received their prophecies in the form of riddles 1 - Moshe' prophecies were given directly and did not require solving.
Targum Yonasan: He was referring to the episode of the Burning Bush (Moshe?s first vision ? Peirush Yonasan) when He appeared to Moshe openly.
Seforno: Some of which required assistance in solving - See Zecharyah, 4:5, whereas others solved them themselves - See Yirmiyah, 1:12 and Bil'am - See Balak, 23:6.
What is "u'Semunas Hashem Yabit" referring to?
Rashi, Ramban (in Pasuk 6, citing the Sifri) and Targum Yonasan: It is referring to when Moshe saw the back of Hashem's Tefilin. 1
Seforno: It repeats that all of the above advantages of Moshe's prophecy over that of the other prophets were added to the fact that he prophesied with the Name of Hashem.
Oros ha'Gra (p.292): Normally, 'Temunah' is something outside intellect. Here, it means understanding Hashem's word.
Why does the Torah use the double Lashon "be'Avdi be'Moshe"?
Rashi: Hashem was pointing out to Aharon and Miriam that they would have had no right to speak of Moshe derogatively even if he had been an Eved Hashem who was not Moshe, or Moshe had he not been the Eved Hashem; 1 how much more so now that he was both.
Even had Hashem not designated Moshe to be His Eved, he would have been a very special person.
What did Hashem mean when He said "Madu'a Lo Yereisem ... "? Why ought they to have been afraid to speak against Moshe?
Seforno: Refer to 12:8:6:1.
Oznayim la'Torah: This Pasuk supports a. the Gemara in Pesachim, 22b that "es Hashem Elokecha Tiyra" comes to include Talmidei-Chachamim and b. the Mishnah in Avos, 1:4 'u'Mora Rabach ke'Mora Shamayim'.
What is the significance of the the term "Avdi Moshe"?
Rashi and Seforno: Irrespective of who the Eved Hashem is, Aharon and Miriam ought to have known that Hashem would not display His love for someone who was not worthy. 1
Rashi: And to suggest that Hashem was unaware of Moshe's deeds (and that they knew something that Hashem did not - Seforno) is even worse!
