Why does the Torah juxtapose "Ve'hayah ha'Makom ... " to "Ve'heni'ach lachem mi'Kol Oyveichem"?
Rashi: It implies that, the moment Yisrael defeat their enemies and enjoy respite from them, they are obligated to build the Beis-Hamikdash. 1
Sanhedrin, 20b: Refer to 12:10:3:1 and notes
Why does the Torah issue the obligation to bring one's Korbanos to a fixed location twice, once in Pasuk 5, and again here?
Rashi: Because from the time Shiloh was destroyed (in 2871) and they came to Nov, and from Nov to Giv'on, Bamos were permitted, until they came to Yerushalayim (built the Beis ha'Mikdash fifty-seven years later, in 2928).
What are the implications of the word "Shamah"?
What are the implications of "Mivchar Nidreichem"?
Rashi (in Menachos, 108b): It implies that, if, for example, a person declares one of his two oxen Hekdesh, he should subsequently pick the better of the two animals to bring on the Mizbe'ach - because that is probably what he had in mind.
Tosefta Menachos, Perek 5: It implies that all Korbanos - both Korb'nos Tzibur 1 and Korb'nos Yachid, may only be brought from the best-quality.
See Torah Temimah, note 36.
Why does the Torah insert the word "Mivchar Nidreichem" here, but not, in Pasuk 6, in connection with Mishkan Shiloh?
