Why does the Torah write "Vechiltzu es ha'Avanim" - in the plural?
1.
R. Bachye (in Pasuk 37) and Sifra: To teach us that if the owner of the stricken stones shares a wall with a neighbor, whose side of the wall is not stricken, they must both remove the bricks (scrape and replace them
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? Sifra).
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R. Bachye and Sifra: We learn from here the principle ''Oy le'Rasha, Oy li'Shecheino!' (Woe to the Rasha, woe to his neighbor!)' ? and Kal va'Chomer 'Tov la'Tzadik, Tov li'Shecheino!' Refer also to 14:42:3:1 and see Torah Temimah, note 142. .
3)
Why does the Torah see fit to insert both "es ha'Avanim" and "asher bahen ha'Nega"?
1.
Sifra: To teach us that, on the one hand, the owner is obligated to remove all the stricken stones ? and not just two; and on the other, that the obligation is confined to stricken stones, and does not extend to regular bricks
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or to 'Kardumim'
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(a certain type of brick).
There are a number of alternative ways of spelling this word
4)
What is the significance of taking the stones to a "Tamei location"?
1.
Rashi: They must throw the bricks outside the town in one (specific ? Torah Temimah) location
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where Taharos are not brought - because the bricks render Tamei the location where they are lying.
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See ha'Torah ve'ha'Mitzvah ? that one is obligated to mark the location, seeing as it is Metamei be'Ohel ? even if the stones have been removed.
5)
Why does the Torah write "Vehishlichu Es'hen" rather than "Vehishlichun"?
1.
Sifra: To distinguish between "el Michutz la'Ir" of a Bayis ha'Menuga, implying any town in Eretz Yisrael and "mi'Chutz la'Machneh Moshavo" of a Metzora, which implies that he is only obligated to leave a walled town.
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