Why did he go to Ashkelon, and not simply kill Pelishtim in Timnah?
Had he done so, people of Timnah would fear similar incidents in the future, but Pelishtim elsewhere would not fear. Now, word would spread among the Pelishtim, and everyone would fear lest Shimshon come to his place and do so! (PF)
Had Shimshon done so in Timnah, the Pelishtim might suspect that his entire intent is to terrorize them. He made it appear as if he is trying to cover up that he killed Pelishtim to take their outfits, because he did not want to pay from his own pocket. (PF)
This was to create friction among the Pelishtim themselves. When the story became known, Anshei Ashkelon would be angry with Anshei Timnah for antagonizing Shimshon (they might also suspect that Anshei Timnah's version of the story is misleading, to minimize their guilt). Pelishtim elsewhere would be divided about whether or not Anshei Timnah are culpable. (PF)
Shimshon was a Nazir. How could he kill people [and become Tamei Mes]?
Radak citing Nazir 4b: His Nezirus was different. (He did not accept it; the angel imposed it on him. He was forbidden only what the angel told him, i.e. wine and shaving.
Radak #1: We can say that he struck the men via a rock or something else, like he did with the donkey's jawbone (15:15). Or, even if he touched them, a person does not die right away from a blow, even a mortal blow. He removed his victim's garments before he died, or if he already died, he commanded another Pelishti to do so. 1
Radak #2: Perhaps he was careful not to become Tamei Mes, except for when it is a Mitzvah. It was a Mitzvah to fight Pelishtim and save Yisrael. 2 Everything was "me'Hashem" (verse 4). A Nazir becomes Tamei for a Mes Mitzvah (Nazir 48b).
Nazir 4b: You cannot prove that he became Tamei. Perhaps he struck the men, and when they were Goses (close to death) he removed their garments.
Surely taking their garments was not a Mitzvah! Perhaps this answer holds that Shimshon himself could kill the Pelishtim immediately by hand, and he would command others to remove the garments.
What are "Chalitzosam"?
Rashi: They are the clothes that he Chalatz (removed) from his victims.
Radak: It is their garments and weapons. He sold them to give the outfits and Sadinim to the 30 men.
Why does it not say that he gave the Sadinim?
Radak #1: He gave to them only the outfits, for they answered only through cheating. Abarvenel - he argued with them about this. 1 They compromised; he gave to them the outfits, and he kept the Sadinim and other garments (of his 30 victims) for himself.
Radak #2, Abarvenel citing Meforshim: He gave to them also the Sadinim; the verses did not mention it. 2
Kli Yakar (Lani'ado): The Sadinim and outfits were for the two parts of the riddle. They said only the latter half, and said that they cannot answer the first half, to pretend that his wife did not tell them.
Why did Shimshon get angry only after he gave the garments?
Kli Yakar (Lani'ado) #1: This teaches that one who owes, it is proper that he not get angry until after he pays. 1
Kli Yakar #2: When he gave to them, he saw that they felt pain (i.e. guilt) that really, they should be paying him.
Malbim: Initially, he thought that when his wife sees that they want to him to give to them garments, she would reveal that she told them (to exempt Shimshon). When she did not tell, he suspected that she was Mezanah with them; indeed, she was! 2
One who gets angry is like one who serves idolatry (Ramban Hilchos De'os 2:3, based on Shabbos 105b), and he loses his Chachmah? (Pesachim 66b)! Perhaps he means not to show anger on his face (which is permitted) until after he pays. However, presumably, the reason to pay first is lest amidst anger, he deny owing, and afterwards he will not want to admit. The Ritva (Shevu'os 42b) says similarly about Shevu'as Modeh b'Miktzas. PF)
