What is the meaning of "v'Ish Yisrael Nigash"?
Rashi: They were rushing to fight Pelishtim.
Targum Yonasan: They pressed. Radak - i.e. they were hungry, for Sha'ul already forbade them to eat, lest they cease the war.
What is the meaning of "va'Yo'el"?
Rashi: It is a curse.
Radak: He had already imposed the curse. This is like "Katzafta va'Necheta" 1 (Yeshayah 64:4). We already sinned, therefore Hashem became angry.
Normally, the past participle (had previously?) is simple past conjugation, without the prefix Vov. Refer to Bereishis 4:1:1:1. These are exceptions. (PF)
Why did Sha'ul forbid them to eat?
Malbim #1: He saw that when they reached Beis Aven, the war ceased. Yisrael ceased to chase their afflicters, for they were forced to fight. They did not fight like a nation ready to risk its life for its independence and its land; Sha'ul forced them into it, by confronting the Pelishtim. Therefore, when they had respite from their enemies, they wanted to rest from fighting.
Malbim #2: It was the way of Yisrael to fast at every time of affliction. Now that they were saved, according to letter of the law they could eat. Sha'ul decreed not to, for the salvation is not complete until out enemies become our footstool (Tehilim 110:1).
Did he forbid only bread?
Rashi: "Lechem" includes all food, e.g. "Nashchisah Etz b'Lachmo" (Yirmeyah 11:19). Radak - we find that they did not eat even the Devash (verse 25)!
Malbim: There is a side to say that he forbade only a proper bread meal, but not to taste bread, or to eat Peros. The reason was "v'Nikamti me'Oyvai" (to take vengeance from my enemies), lest people delay to prepare and eat a meal. There is a side to say that he decreed a fast, so the merit of their affliction and Teshuvah will help to take vengeance from their enemies. Yisrael were stringent not to even taste, and not even Devash (verse 25).
