Why does the Torah write "ke'Vo'achem el ha'Aretz" and not "Ki Savo" or "Ki Savo'u" like it does everywhere else?
Rashi (citing Kesuvos, 25a) and R. Bachye #1 (on Pasuk 20): To teach us that, unlike other Mitzvos, 1 which would only take effect after Yisrael conquer the land and distribute it, 2 the Mitzvah of Chalah would take effect immediately upon entry. 3
Kesuvos, 25a: To teach us that the Chiyuv Chalah will only take effect when all of Yisrael enter the land. 4
Ramban: Such as Ma'asros and Terumah.
Fourteen years after entering it. See Rashi.
R. Bachye: Only in Eretz Yisrael, but not in Chutz la'Aretz. See Torah Temimah, note 32.
Kesuvos, 25a: Which was not the case when Yisrael returned to the land in the days of Ezra. Consequently, Chalah nowadays is only mi'de'Rabanan, even in Eretz Yisrael. See Torah Temimah, note 33. See also R. Bachye who discusses the Dinim of Chalah nowadays.
What are the implications of the word "asher Ani Meivi eschem Shamah"?
