What are "Korbanam" and "Chatasam", respectively, referring to?
Rashi and Ramban: "Korbanam" refers to the bull of the Olah and "Chatasam", to the goat of the Chatas.
Why does the Torah add "ve'Hein Hevi'u es Korbanam ... "?
Ramban #1: To stress that, in spite of the severity of the sin, since it was performed be'Shogeg and they brought their Olah and Chatas, they deserve an atonement.
Ramban #2 (citing R. Yashiyah 1 in the Sifri): If one tribe sinned following a ruling of its Beis-Din, and other tribes followed suite, they are all subject to bring an Olah and a Chatas.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "ve'Chatasam ? al "Shig'gasam"?
Why does the Torah write ?Isheh la?Hashem ve?Chatasam Lifnei Hashem??
Ramban and R. Bachye: They brought the Olah to the Shem Havayah (Midas Rachamim) 1 and the Chatas before the Midas ha?Din ? corresponding to ?Hu u?Beis Diyno?. 2 3
Which the Torah mentions here due to the severity of the sin of Avodah Zarah, as opposed to other sins, where it only writes ?Lifnei Hashem?.
See R. Bachye and R. Chavel?s footnotes.
R. Bachye: Which explains why the Torah inserted the word ?Venislach? twice ? once in the current Pasuk and once in Pasuk 24 ? since the sin has been atoned for by both the Midas Rachamim and the Midas ha?Din.


