Since the the K'ri of "Yadav" is plural, why does the Torah need to insert the word "Sh'tei Yadav"?
Menachos, 93b: To teach us that wherever the word "Yadav" appears 1 without "Sh'tei", it means with two hands - unless it specifically inserts the word "Achas".
In connection with the Semichah of a Korban. See Torah Temimah, note 94.
Having already informed us - in Pasuk 10 - that the Sa'ir la'Azazel is alive, why does the Torah repeat " .. al Rosh ha'Sa'ir ha'Chai"?
Sifra: To teach us that it must be alive until the blood of the Sa'ir la'Hashem has been sprinkled. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 93. Refer also to 16:10:0.1:1 and note..
What is the text of the Viduy that Aharon recited?
Yoma, 66aa: 'Ana Hashem - Chat'u, Avu, Pash'u Lefanecha Amcha Beis Yisrael; Ana ba'Hashem - Kaper Na le'Chata'im, ve'la'Avonos, ve'la'Pesha'im ? '. 1
See Torah Temimah, citing Yoma, ibid. and note 98, where he elaborates. The first two Viduyim, which he receted on behalf of himself, his wife and his fellow Kohanim, was similar, only he said it in the first person - 'she'Chatasi ? Ani u'Veisi'.
What is the significance of the triple Lashon of sin "Avonos Bnei Yisrael... Pish'eihem? Chatosam"?
Torah Temimah: They refer to sins performed for pleasure, rebellion, and b'Shogeg, respectively. 1
Sifsei Chachamim: Though the order, according to the Chachamim of R. Meir, is Chata'im, Avonos, Pesha'im.
Why does the Torah compare the Chata'os to the Pesha'im?
Kerisos, 25b: To teach us that, like the Pesha'im, the Viduy only covers Chata'im that are not subject to a Chatas, but those that are, do not receive a Kaparah unless the owner brought his Chatas. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 98.
Why does the Torah write "Ve'nasan Osam al Rosh ha'Sa'ir", an expression that it does not use by the Semichah of any other Korban?
Ramban: Because, in contrast to all the Korbanos, the Sa'ir la'Azazel comes neither to appease nor to atone, but to take away Yisrael's sins against its will (as it were), 1 leaving them free of sin. 2
Targum Yonasan: To teach us that he places both hands together on the head of the goat - right hand on left.
Oznayim la'Torah: Because the Kohen Gadol actually places the sins of Yisrael on the head of the goat - by ordering the angels that were created from their sins 3 to do so. And when the goat was pushed down from the rock, they disappeared.
Why, following the Viduy, does the Torah not mention the word "ha'Chai" - once in the current Pasuk and twice in Pasuk 22 - like it did three times in Pesukim 10, 20 and in the current Pasuk?
Oznayim la'Torah: To hint that, after the Viduy, the Sa'ir is sent to the desert to die. 1
What are the connotations of "Ish Iti" - who takes the Sa'ir la'Azazel out to the desert?
Rashi, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonason: It means a man who is designated the day before Yom Kipur. 1
Seforno: It means a man who was well-acquainted with the roads and deserts, and was readily available to travel to any point to which he was sent.
Rashbam: It means a man who is well-aquainted with desert terrain and who is always available to be sent there when needed.
What is the definition of "Eretz Gezeirah?
Rashbam and Targum Yonasan: A barren land, where no produce grows, which is 'cut-off' from everything that is good. 1
Targum Onkelos: 'Uninhabited terrain'.
Yoma, 67b #1: 'Eretz Chatuchah'. See answer #1 and note. 4: Yoma, 67b #: A place where the goat will be pushed down and torn to pieces as it falls.
Yoma, #3: "Gezeirah", 'a decree'. Hashem decreed (Chukim) and one is not permitted to question them.
Presumaby that is also what Rashi means when he translates it in Pasuk 8 as 'Eretz Chatuchah'.
