Does the man playing the female (passive) role also transgress?
Sanhedrin, 54b: Yes, because the words "Lo "Sishkav" can also be read "Lo Sishacheiv" (passive). 1
Sanhedrin, ibid.: And since both roles are derived from the same word, a man who transgresses both simultaneously be'Shogeg, is only Chayav one Chatas.
What are the implications of "Mishk'vei (plural) Ishah"?
Yevamos, 83b: It implies that the basic Pasuk is referring to an Androginus, who has both sets of genitals, in the Isur - though only if he plays the male role 1 - whereas a man we learn from "Mishk'vei Ishah". 2
Sanhedrin, 55a: The comparison of Mishkav Ish to Mishkav Ishah teaches us that, one is Chayav for Ha'ara'ah (intamcy without penetration by a man, just as one is Chayav by a woman. 3
What if a man commits adultery or incest with a woman ffrom the back - like a man?
Sanhedrin 54b: We learn from the word "ve'es Ishah (or from the 'Vav' in "ve'Es") that he is Chayav. 1
The Gemara in Sanhedrin 54b learns this from "Mishk'vei Ishah", which implies that there are two locations on a woman which are subject to Mishkav - ke'Darkah and she'Lo ke'Darkah. -
What is the underlying reason behind the prohibition of homosexuality and bestiality?
Ramban: Intimacy with them is abominable and cannot produce children. 1
Moshav Zekenim citing R. Yehudah ha'Chasid: So that men will marry women and fulfill Peru u'Rvu.
Refer to 18:6:6:2**.
Why is this called "To'evah"?
Hadar Zekenim (from Nedarim 51a): TO'Eh Atah VAH (you err about this, to abandon your wife and have Bi'ah with a man). 1
Hadar Zekenim: You did not turn to what is written in Mishlei (5:15) "Shese Mayim mi'Borecha" (have Bi'ah with your wife)!
