Why does the Torah refer to Ma'aser Rishon as "Terumah"?
Rashi: Because T'rumas Ma'aser has not yet been taken from it.
Yevamos, 86a: To teach us that, like Terumah, until Ma'aser is taken from the crops, it has a Din of Tevel. 1
Sifri: To teach us that, if the owner wants to declare the Tevel in the Ma?aser T?rumas Ma?aser on another batch, he may do so. 2
Why here, does the Torah not add "Ani Chelk'cha ve'Nachalasecha"- like it does in connection with the Kohanim - whereas in Parshas Shoftim, in connection with T'rumos and Ma'asros (inter alia) it writes "Hashem Hu Nachalaso" - including the Levi'im?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because regarding the Avodah, the Levi'im are not on the same level as the Kohanim, who perform the Avodah in the Beis-Hamikdash, whereas when it comes to the Ma'asros that they receive, they, like the Kohanos, eat from the Table of Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu.
