Having stated "u'Meis ha'Ish ... Levado" in the previous Pasuk, why does the Torah add 've'la'Na'arah Lo Sa'Asei Davar"?
If the girl is Patur because she cried out but there waas no-one to save her, why does the Torah mention a field?
Rashi (in Sh'mos 22:30): It only mentions a field because it is more common for a rape to take place there. 1
Ramban: Refer to 22:24:1:2*.
Torah Temimah (citing the Rambam): To teach us that, if the act took place in the field, the girl is assumed to have been raped, until it is proven that she was a willing partner, whereas in the town she is assumed guilty until proven innocent. 2 .
What are the implications of "ve'Ein Moshi'a lah"?