1)

Why does the Torah mention specifically the "two lambs of the Shelamim"?

1.

Rashi #1 (on Pasuk 20): To exclude the bull and the rams from the Tenufah 1 (which is performed whilst the lambs are still alive). 2

2.

Rashi #2 (in Pesachim 13b): Because the Heter to eat the Shtei ha'Lechem is dependent upon the two lambs - which are waved together with it - and not upon the other Korbanos mentioned in the previous Pasuk.

1

Rashi (in Pesachim 13b): It is the Shechitah of the two lambs which sanctifies the Shtei ha'Lechem and which permit the Kohanim to eat them.

2

Rashi (in Sukah 37b): The Kohen places the two loaves on the lambs and waves them.

2)

"U'Shenei Chevasim ... l'Zevach Shelamim." What is the significance of the comparison of the Shelamim to the Chatas?

1.

Zevachim 55b: It teaches us that, like a Chatas, the Shalmei Tzibur 1 must be eaten by male Kohanim in one day and one night.

1

The two lambs that are brought on Shavu'os with the Shtei ha'Lechem are the only case of the Tzibur bringing a Shelamim.

3)

Why does the Torah insert the word "l'Zevach Shelamim"?

1.

Sifra: To teach us that they must be Shechted for the sake of a Shelamim.

4)

How do we know that the Korbanos listed here are not synonymous with the Korban Musaf which the Torah discusses in Parshas Pinchas (Bamidbar 28:27)?

1.

Rashi: Because the two bulls and one ram mentioned here do not tally with the one bull and two rams mentioned there. 1

2.

Because if they were, why would the Torah repeat them here - something that it does not do by any other Yom-Tov?

1

See also Torah Temimah, citing Menachos 45b and note 68.

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