Why does the Torah insert the words "al D'var asher Lo Kidmu eschem ? "?
Rashi: With reference to the verbal plan 1 - by the episode of Ba'al Pe'or - that they devised to cause you to sin.
Seeing that the word "D'var" always adopts its literal meaning of something that is spoken.
Why does the Torah find it necessary to give the reason for the La'av of "Lo Yavo Amoni u'Mo'avi bi'Kehal Hashem"?
Ramban (citing Yevamos, 76b): To enable us to extrapolate "Amoni", ve'Lo Amonis; "Mo'avi", 've'Lo Mo'avis' (permitting the women of Amon and Mo'av), since it is not the way of women 1 to bring food out to a passing nation 2 or to hire.
Yevamos 76b: We do not ,by the same token, extrapolate "Mitzri", ve'Lo Mitzris, "Edomi", ve'Lo Edomis, and Edomi and Egyptian women are included in the prohibition.
Sanhedrin, 103b: The fact that for not offering Yisrael food and drink Amon and Mo'av (our cousins) were distanced from us, indicates that offering a fellow-Jew fodd and drink is a great thing to do.
Why does the Torah write "asher Lo Kidmu ... " in the plural, and "asher Sachar alecha ... " in the singular?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because whereas both Amon and Mo'av did not offer Yisrael food and water in the desert, it was only Mo'av who hired Bil'am to curse them.
Rashi - in 2:29 - writes that "Ochel ba'Kesef Tashbireni ... Ka'asher Asu li ... ve'ha'Mo'avim" teaches that Mo'av sold food and water to Yisrael. Why does the Torah then say "Al-D'var asher Lo Kidmu eschem ba'Lechem u'va'Mayim"?
Refer to Devarim 2:29:151:1-4.
Why does the Torah add the word "ba'Derech"?
Rashi: To stress that they did this when when Yisrael were fatigued (not lucid) - due to their travels. 1
And one would have expected them to offer them food to revive their spirits.
Which of the two reasons applies to Amon, and which to Mo'av?
Rosh, Ramban and Hadar Zekenim (in Pasuk 8, citing R. Nasan bar Yosef): Mo'av hired Bil'am, and Amon failed to offer us food when we passed his territory. 1
Seforno (on Pasuk 7): Not offering free food applies to both. Mo'av sold us food, and Amon did not even do that. And the Torah rejects the Mo'avim also for hiring Bil'am to curse us.
Malbim (in Pasuk 4): Both apply to both. At the time of Dor ha'Midbar, Amon was much smaller (which is why they were called "B'nei Amon) 2 ." And the king of Mo'av was king also over them; it is as if also they hired Bil'am. Yiftach was addressing Amon and said "are you better than Balak?? He did not fight with them!" He did not mention the king of Amon! 3
Rashbam: Not offering food applies to the Mo'avim who did not live in Ar, since only those who lived in Ar sold Yisrael food.
Ramban: The reason that the Torah rejects the two brothers Amon and Mo'av is based on the fact that the merit of Avraham saved their parents (Lot and his daughters) from the sword and from captivity (Bereishis 14:16) and from Sedom (Bereishis, 19:29). Consequently, their behavior towards Avraham's descendants was a gross act of ingratitude. See Ramban, who explains why Amon's sin was greater than Mo'av's, which is why the Torah mentions "Amoni" first. See also Ba'al ha'Turim on Pasuk 6. (Yevamos 76b, regarding Rus ha'Mo'avis, discusses whether or not the women should have gone out to bring food. These Rishonim say that this reason applies only to Amon! Perhaps it is clear that Amonis and Mo'avis have the same law, so we can learn Rus' status from the law of Amonis. ? PF)
Seemingly, they are called so because their patriarch was "Ben Ami" (Bereishis 19:38). They kept this name throughout Tanach, even after they became a big nation with their own king! (PF)
