What are the connotations of "Vayikov .... es Hashem"?
Rashi and Rashbam: It means that he specified the Name Havayah of Hashem which he had heard on Har Sinai, before blaspheming it.
Moshav Zekenim, citing R. Eliezer of Garmaiza: He literally [wrote Hashem's name] and pierced it. He also blasphemed verbally.
Why did the Mekalel curse Hashem's Name?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because he discovered that he was the son of the Egyptian whom Moshe had killed using the Name of Hashem.
Why does thr Torah use the Lashon "Vayekalel" and not the milder term 'Vayevarech' (as in Melachim 1, 21:13)?
Sifra: To teach us that it is only someone who curses using the Name 'Havayah' who is Chayav Misah, byr not if one curses by one of the other Names of Hashem. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 26.
?Vayavi?u oso el Moshe?. Why did the Torah not add ?ve?el Kol ha?Eidah? like it did in connection with the Mekoshesh Eitzim ? in Bamidbar 15:33? ?
R. Bachye: Because the reason that he cursed Hashem was because Moshe killed the Egyption with the Name of Hashem. 1
Why does the Torah see fit to specify the name of the blasphemer's mother?
Rashi and R. Bachye: It is in praise of Yisrael, since she was the only woman in Yisrael who had illicit relations with an Egyption. 1
R. Bachye: Because a person, who developed inside his mother?s stomach and who suckled her breasts, is drawn after her Midos 2 more than after his father?s. 3
See R. Bachye and R. Chavel?s footnotes DH ?Kol she?Niv?alah?.
Which explains why the mother always mentions the name of the mothers of the kings of Yisrael ? See for example Melachim 1, 22:42 & 1. 15:2 ? and why David ha?Melech stated in Tehilim 116:16 - ?Ani Avd?cha ben Amosecha?. See R. Chavel?s footnotes DH ?Ani Avd?cha?.
See R. Bachye who elaborates.
What is the significance of the name Sh'lomis bas Divri?
Rashi: "Sh'lomis" - she would twitter 'Shalom to you! Shalom to you', enquiring after the wellbeing of all and sundry. "Bas Divri"- she was talkative, and tended to speak to anybody she met (including men) - and that is what caused her predicament.
Why does the Torah find it necessary to specify the name of Sh'lomis's tribe?
Rashi: It teaches us that a Rasha shames himself, his father and his tribe. 1
B'chor Shor, Chizkuni and Da'as Zekenim: This caused the quarrel, because people from the tribe of Dan crave judgment (Pesachim 4a). 2
Rashi: By the same token, the Torah writes in Vayakhel Sh'mos, 35:34 "Ohali'av ben Achisamach le'Mateh Dan" to teach us that a Tzadik brings praise upon himself, upon his father and upon his tribe.
This implies that the blasphemer received this trait from his mother's tribe. Even though normally it depends only on the father, perhaps this is only when the father is a Yisrael. Or, perhaps the reason why others protested and brought him to Moshe was because he wanted to camp among them, and they were from Dan! (PF)
Why does the Torah see fir to publicise the episode of the Mekalel? Surely it would have sufficed to teach us the Dini of aomeone who blasphemes Hashem ? in Pesukim 15 & 16, and to protect Hashem?s Honor by omitting the story?
R. Bachye #1: To teach us the mrits of Yisrael ? that no Yisrael would commit such a grave sin as to curse Hashem ? only someone whose pedigree was defected from both his father and his mother - like that of the Ben Ish Mitzri .
R. Bachye #2: To teach us the basic method of blessing Hashem, which like the Mekalel, entails mentioning Hashem?s Name and reflecting on the letters, and then blessing it 1 ? like the Mekalel did when when cursing it for which he was Chayav Miysah.
As the Pasuk writes in Tehilim 145:1 ?Aromimcha Elokai ha?Melech Va?avorcha Shimcha Le?Olam Va?ed?. See R. Bachye.
