1)

How will we reconcile "be'Yomo Titen Secharo" with the Pasuk in Kedoshim Vayikra, 19:13 "ve'Lo Salin Pe'ulas Sachir ad Boker"?

1.

Bava Metzi'a, 110b: The Pasuk there is discussing a day laborer, whose remuneration is due by the end of the following night; whereas the current Pasuk is discussing a night laborer, who must be paid no later than the end of the following day. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 138 and Oznayim la'Torah, DH 've'Lo Savo alaav ha'Shemesh'.

2)

What are the connotations of "ve'Eilav hu Nosei es Nafsho"?

1.

Rashi: It means that the laborer (sometimes) endangers himself 1 by climbing up a ramp or suspending himself from a tree 2 - for his wages. 3 (Consequently, if the employer holds back his wages, it is as if he 'took his Soul' - Bava Metzi'a, 112a).

2.

Ramban and Targum Yonasan: It means that it was for his wages he worked in order to sustain himself (and his wife and his children ? for that night's meal ? Ramban).

3.

Rashbam: It means that the laborer has a strong desire for 4 (sets his mind on) his wages.

4.

Sifri: It means that it was under that condition that undertook to work for him ? to preclude from the La'av where the employer came to an agreement with the laborer beforehand to pay him only later. 5


1

Consequently, he transgresses, even if he hired the laborer to pick only one bunch of grapes. See Torah Temimah, note 141.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 142.

3

Rashbam: As in Hoshe'a, 4:8. See also Oznayim la'Torah.

4

Sifri: Nevertheless, since the Torah wrote in Kedoshim, Vayilra, 19:3 "Lo Salin ... ", the La'av applies even if the worker did not work under dangerous conditions.. See Torah Temimah, note 143.

5

See Torah Temimah, note 140.

3)

"ve'Eilav Hu Nosei es Nafsho". Does the employer transgress if the work does not entail endangering the laborer?

1.

Sifri: The Pasuk in Kedoshim Vayikra, 19:13 "Lo Salin Pe'ulas Sachir Itcha ad Boker" teaches us that he transgresses even where there is no danger to the laborer. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 143.

4)

Why does the Torah insert the phrase "ve'Lo Yikra alecha el Hashem"?

1.

Rashi: To teach us that the employer has sinned even if the employee does not cry out to Hashem.

2.

Rashi (in Re'ei, 15:9): To teach us that even if one do not pay him on time, he is not obligated to cry out to Hashem. 1


1

Refer to 15:9:1:1*.

5)

Seeing as "Ve'hayah b'cha Chet" applies even if the the emloyee does not cry out, why, in Devarim 15:9 - in connection with someone who asks to borrow and is refused - does the Torah write "Vekara alecha el Hashem"?

1.

Rashi: To teach us that Hashem will hasten to punish sooner, if the laborer cries out to Him. 1

2.

Sifri: To teach us that it is not a Mitzvah to refrain from crying out.


1

See Oznayim la'Torah - that, nder different circumstances, Hashem tends to punish first the one 'hands over his Din to Him' - who requests thst Hashm punish the malcreant.

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