What is this Pasuk referring to?
Rashi, Rashbam, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It is referring to someone who declares a Tamei species 1 Hekdesh Bedek ha'Bayis.
Ramban: It is referring to a B'chor of a Tamei species. If one is Makdish it, there is no Kedushas Bechorah, and it has the Din of Hekdesh [Bedek ha'Bayis], which the owner can redeem with an added Chomesh, and others, for its market-value. 2
Rashi (in Pasuk 11) and Rashbam: As opposed to "Beheimah Teme'ah" there, which refers to a Tahor species with a blemish. Refer also to 27:27:151:1 & 2.
Ramban: And this is the source of the Din that Tamei species are not subject to the Bechorah.
What are the implications of ?ve?Im ba?Beheimah ha?Teme?ah ? ??
Bava Metzi'a, 54b: It implies that one only needs to add a fifth by Hekdesh Rishon and where it is completely for Hashem 1 - to preclude Hekdesh Sheini - where for example, the owner transferred the Kedushah on to a second animal. 2
Yerushalmi Ma?aser Sheini 3:6: It teaches us that, like a Beheimah Teme?ah which does not change between the Hekdesh to the Pidyon, one can redeem a dead animal that declared Hekdesh ? to preclude an animal that died after it was declared Hekdesh, which cannot be redeemed because it iss not subject to Ha?amadah ve?Ha?arachah.
Why does the Torah insert the ?Hey? in "ba'Beheimah ha'Teme'ah"?
Bava Metzi'a, 54b: To preclude Hekdesh Sheini - where for example, the owner transferred the Kedushah on to a second animal - from the Din of adding a fifth. 1
Refer to 27:15:1:1*. See also Torah Temimah, note 157, who elaborates.
What are the connotations of the word "u'Fadah be'Erkecha"?
Rashi #1: It means 'according to the evaluation of the Kohen'.
Rashi (in Avodah Zarah, 54b): It teaches us that when one redeems Hekdesh, the animal goes out to Chulin and the money becomes Hekdesh.
What is the definition of "Chamishiso"?
Refer to Vayikra 5:16:2:1.
What is the end of the Pasuk "ve'Im Lo Yiga'el ... " coming to teach us?
Rashi: It teaches us that, if the owner fails to redeem the animal from Bedek ha'Bayis (and pay the extra fifth), then the Gizbar sells it to somebody else.
Bechoros, 13a: It teaches that the Mitzvah to redeem Cherem lies first and foremost with the owner, and it is only if he does not redeem it that others may do so. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 163.
Why does the Torah write first "u'Padah be'Erkecha" and then "Venimkar be'Erkecha"?
Rashi (in Succah, 40b): To teach us that, just as by a sale, the article goes out of the domain of the seller, so too, by Pidyon, the article goes out of the domain of Hekdesh and becomes Chulin. 1
See Torah Temimah note 160.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that the current Pasuk is discussing being Makdish a Tamei species to Bedek ha'Bayis. Why don't we know it from "ve'Im Kol Beheimah Teme'ah" in Pasuk 11, since we already know a Ba'al Mum from "Asher Lo Yakrivu" mentioned there?
Moshav Zekenim #1: According to the opinion in Menachos, 100a - that a Tahor Minchah may not be redeemed, even before it is sanctified in a K'li Shareis, we can say that Temei'ah teaches us that only a Tamei [Minchah] may be redeemed, but not a Tahor [Minchah].
Moshav Zekenim #2: Temei'ah teaches that it has a [permanent] blemish that can never be fixed, similar to a Tamei species.
Rashi writes that the current Pasuk discusses being Makdish a Tamei species to Bedek ha'Bayis. Perhaps it refers to the Din of B/chor discussed in the previous Pasuk?
Rashi: It cannot refer to a B'chor, since Tamei species are not subject to the Bechorah. Nor can it refer to the B'chor of a donkey, since it is redeemed with a Seh, which is given to the Kohen and is not Kadosh.
