What is the meaning of the opening phrase ("ve'Achlu Osam asher Kupar bahem") in the Pasuk?
Rashi #1: It means that Aharon and his sons eating the Eil ha'Milu'im will atone for all 'Zarus' (any Avodah performed by a Zar) and abominations of which they (the Kohanim) are guilty.
Rashi #2 (in Pesachim, 72b): It teaches us that eating Kodshim is a Mitzvah.
Rashi #3 (in Yevamos, 40a): It teaches us the Kaparah of a Korban is only complete when the Basar is eaten.
Pesachim, 29b: It teaches us that when the Kohanim eat the meat of a Korban Chatas, 1 the owner receives his atonement.
Even though the current Pasuk is discussing a Shelamim, and Aharon and his sons were being instructed to eat in their capacity as owners..
What is the meaning of "Lemalei es Yadam ... "?
Rashi: It means that it is via the Korbanos of the Milu'im that Aharon and his sons would be initiated for the Kehunah and become sanctified to serve as Kohanim.
Refer also to Sh'mos 28:41: 1-3.
What can we extrapolate from the final phrase in the Pasuk - "ve'Zar Lo Yochal ki Kodesh heim"?
Rashi: It is a warning forbidding a Zar against eating all Korbanos 1 that are Kodshei Kodshim.
Rashi (in Yevamos, 32b): This is not synonymous with the La'av of Me'ilah, since, whatever Kohanim are permitted to eat is not subject to Me'ilah.
What is the corrolory between the first half of the Pasuk and the second half?
