Why does it say "va'Yachel Yonah"?
Radak: It was a three-day journey from one end of the city to the other. Yonah went one day into the city, and announced "in 40 days?"
Why did Yonah go one day into the city before announcing?
Malbim: He was unsure when the 40 days begin, since it was a three-day journey from one end of the city to the other. If he will announce immediately on the first day, people in the end of the city will calculate the 40 days from that day, and people on the other end will calculate from [when word reaches them,] three days later 1 . Therefore, he waited one day until he entered one day into the city. He thought that the 40 days will begin from then, for it is the middle day. He will call another 40 days after this day, and his prophecy will be fulfilled in any case.
He could have said '40 days from today, on day Ploni of month Ploni?!' (PF)
What is the meaning of "Nehpaches"?
Rashi: It will be destroyed 1 . Hagahah ? he did not say Nechereves, for Nehpaches has two meanings ? good and bad. If they will not repent, it will be destroyed. If they will repent, Nehpaches will refer to the residents ? they will be reversed from evil to good.
Radak: It will be "k'Mahpechas Sedom va'Amorah" (Devarim 29:22), for their deeds were similar.
Was the prophecy fulfilled?
Hagahah in Rashi: Yes (refer to 3:4:3:1).
Malbim citing Mahari: The prophecy was fulfilled in two ways. (a) The people were reversed [to Tzadikim] in 40 days. (b) The city was destroyed after 40 years. There is a calculation of another 80 years. I.e. Nebuchadnetzar destroyed it 120 years after Yonah's prophecy 1 .
Malbim: Really, we need not show how his words were fulfilled. Prophecies for punishments are conditional ? if they will not repent, they will be fulfilled. "Rega Adaber Al Goy? Linsosh v'Linsotz?; v'Shav ha'Goy ha'Hu?" (Yirmeyah 18:7-8). There was no need for Yonah to specify so. This is why Hashem sent a Navi to warn them! If the decree was absolute and Teshuvah could not avert it, there was no need to inform it via a Navi! A Navi is sent to make them repent and nullify the decree 2 ! Yonah should have done so, like Hashem initially commanded him. He only announced the decree. He wanted them to err and not repent 3 !
Malbim: There are contradictions in Mahari's calculation (refer to 3:1:1:1*). If we want to say that it was fulfilled years later, we must say that Yonah was in the days of Menachem ben Gadi, and it was fulfilled partially 40 years later, in Chizkiyah's 15th year, when an angel wiped out Machaneh Ashur; Ninveh was its capitol. The king's sons killed him via the sword.
Perhaps the Navi was sent so people will know that it was a punishment from Hashem, and not chance! (PF)
Why did Hashem not tell Yonah that additionally, he must rebuke them? Perhaps it is because He knew that hearing the decree will suffice to make them repent. (PF)
