Why does it say here "ha'Bamos Asher Nitatz", and in Melachim II, 21:3 "ha'Bamos Asher Ibad"?
Malbim (Melachim II, 21:3): There it discusses Bamos for Shamayim. Here it discusses Bamos for idolatry; they require Netitzah (demolition).
Why does it say here "Be'alim" and "Asheros" (plural), and in Melachim II, 21:3 "Ba'al" and "Asherah" (singular)?
Malbim (Melachim II, 21:3): There it says "like Achav did", and Achav made only one of each 1 . Ba'al is for the sun, and Asherah for the moon. Here it teaches that he added to Achav, and made many. Here it does not say 'like Achav did.'
Achav put an idol in every furrow in Yisrael (Sanhedrin 102b). We do not find that he served a different idolatry. Were not all of them Ba'alim?! (PF)
Why does it mention bowing and serving?
Malbim (Melachim II, 21:3): Bowing could be merely for the sake of honor, if he views them as intermediaries between [him and] Hashem, just like we honor the king's officers. However, serving proves that he considers them to be deities.
