Why does the Pasuk insert the (unusual) word "Asher Nasi Yecheta"?
Rashi (citing the Sifra) and Ramban #1: It is a Lashon of "Ashrei", as if to say - How praiseworthy is the generation whose king has the courage 1 to bring a Korban for having sinned be'Shogeg. How much more will he feel remorse for sinning be'Meizid!
Ramban #2 and Moshav Zekenim (both citing the Ibn Ezra): It translates as ?If the one who sinned was the king. 2
Ramban #3, Seforno and Targum Yonasan: It is synonymous with "Ka'asher" - 'When'X 3 (not ?if?, because, due to his power, 4 it is all but inevitable that he will sin - Seforno). 5
Rashbam: Invert the words to read "Nasi asher Yecheta" - ?The Nasi who sins'.
And the understanding to realize that he sinned. See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'asher Nasi Yecheta' #2.
As if the Pasuk had written "asher Yecheta, Nasi" (Ibn Ezra).
As we find in Beshalach Sh'mos 14:13 and in Ki Sisa, Sh'mos, 34:18 (Ramban).
Oznayim la'Torah: Since sovereignty leads to conceit (as in Eikev, Devarim, 8:14) which in turn, leads to sin (See Eikev, Devarim, 8:17 & 18).
As the Torah writes in Ha'azinu, Devarim 32:15, in connection with wealth (Seforno).
What is the definition of "Nasi"?
Horayos, 11a: It means (not the prince of a tribe, but) the king - who is top of the hierarchy with no-one above him. 1
Horayos, 11a: Which we learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Hashen Elokav" "Hashem Elokav" from Melech, in Shoftim, Devarrim, 17:19.
What if the Nasi sinned before being appointed King or after he was removed from office?
What does "mi'Kol Mitzvos Hashem" incorporate?
Horayos, 8a: It incorporates any sin for which one is Chayav Kareis be'Meizid and a Chatas be'Shogeg. 1 .
Horayos (ibid.): Which we learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "mi'Kol Mitzvos Hashem" "mi'Kol Mitzvos Hashem" from Tzibur in Pasuk 13.
Why does the Torah insert (the otherwise suprfluous) the words "Hashem Elokav"?
Ramban: To remind the king that, although he is the master who need be afraid of nobody, he is obligated to fear Hashem who is Master over the masters. 1
Rashbam: It implies that he is a G-d-fearing man who did not sin be'Meizid, only be'Shogeg.
Rosh X: Because there is no one to demand [that he atones for] his sin. Therefore, there is no-one to offer his Korban other than himself.
Da'as Zekenim (in Pasuk 23, citing the B?chor Shor): What the Torah means is that ?as long as only Hashem Elokav knows X that he sinned, he brings an Asham Taluy. However, the moment he finds out X "O Hoda Eilav" - in Pasuk 23 - ?Veheivi es Korbano? -he brings a Chatas. 2
As the Pasuk teaches in Shoftim Devarim 17:19 (Ramban).
Da'as Zekeinim: The Sifra supports this explanation.
What are the implications of "ve'Asheim"?
Ramban #1 (citing Ibn Ezra), Seforno #1 and Rashbam: It implies that he himself is aware that he sinned. 1
Ramban #2 and Moshav Zekenim (pn Pauk 23): It implies that he sins and is subject to punishment. 2
Seforno #2 (on Pasuk 27): It implies that he is obligated to do Teshuvah before bringing his Korban. 3
Moshav Zekenim: It implies Meizid. The Torah begins with Shogeg and ends with Meizid, to teach us that even if a king sins be'Shogeg, he is considered Meizid, since he causes others to sin after him.
What are the implications of "bi'Shegagah ve'Asheim"?
Horayos, 5b: It implies that when he discovers that he sinned he will not repeat the sin; Otherwise, he is not permitted to bring a Chatas. 1
Oznayim la'Torah (on Pasuk 27): The Torah inserts "ve'Asheim" by the Chatas of a Nasi and of the Yachid, because, when a person sins, he opens the door to sin again; 2 and the Chatas needs to cover that sin as well.
Refer also to 4:27:0.3:1 and note.
Oznayim la'Torah: Since that is the way of the Yeitzer-ha'Ra ? today he says 'Do this!' and tomorrow, 'Do that!' until eventually, he tells a person to serve Avodah Zarah. See Oznayim la'Torah, who elaborates further.
Why is Chatas Nasi written immediately after Chatas ha'Kahal?
Moshav Zekenim To teach us that the Torah considers someone who is able to protest and does not, it as if he himself sinned.
