Seeing as the land now belonged to Pharaoh, and the people were his serfs, why did Yosef allow them to take four fifths and Pharaoh only one fifth -- and not the other way around?
Ramban: Indeed, that is what he should have done. However, by granting the people the lion's share of crops, Yosef rendered them indebted to him for his kindness. 1
Seforno: It is correct for them to give Pharaoh a fifth, and, as the owner of the land, for Pharaoh to give them four fifths.
A kindness that they acknowledged in 47:25 (Ramban). Nevertheless, in exchange for this concession, he obligated them to be permanently bound by this contract (in keeping with their initial undertaking, "and the land will not lie fallow (ever)" (47:25), which explains why they reiterated that they would be slaves to Pharaoh. (Refer to 47:20:1:1**).
Why does it say "Lachem," and also "vela'Asher b'Vateichem"?
Tosfos ha'Shalem (3, citing Moshav Zekenim): Yosef explained what the four portions are for - "l'Zera ha'Sadeh" (to plant), "ul'Ochlechem" (for you to eat), "vela'Asher b'Vateichem" (for your slaves) "v'Le'echol l'Tapchem" (for your children).
Why is the word 'ha'Yados" written missing a Vav?
Moshav Zekenim: This teaches that one should not give more than a fifth [to Tzedakah]. He keeps four fifths, for the four things mentioned here (refer to 47:24:151:1).
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'For seeding the field' - every year." What is Rashi adding?
Gur Aryeh: We might have thought that only in the first year must the Egyptians give a fifth to Pharaoh, 1 in return for his having supplied the grain for planting (47:23). Rashi emphasizes that they were to give the fifth every year. This is proven by the verse below, "Yosef set it as a law until today... a fifth for Pharaoh" (47:26).
Gur Aryeh seemingly means, that I might have punctuated the verse, 'You must give a fifth to Pharaoh; while four portions shall be yours. [Pharaoh must be given a fifth] in return for the seeding of the field....' Rather, the verse relates even to all future years; when the seeding was to be done by the farmers, and was to come from their own portion. (CS)
Rashi writes: "'For seeding the field' - every year." Mizrachi asks, Rashi should have introduced this comment at the beginning of the Pasuk (i.e., by writing, 'It shall be at the yields - every year)!
Gur Aryeh: I might have understood the verse to mean that the fifth must only be given this first year, in exchange for Pharaoh having provided the seeds (refer to 47:24:151:1:1 1 ). Rashi places his comment here, to show that the fifth would apply every year.
Rashi writes: "And for those in your households - [i.e.] as food for the slaves and maidservants of your households." Why explain this way?
Gur Aryeh: Had the verse meant 'for everyone in your households,' it would not have needed to add "and for your children to eat." If so, this phrase must mean other members of the households - i.e. the servants.
