Seeing as the Sotah is only known to have secluded herself with another man, how can the Torah write "Veshachav Ish osah" as if she is guilty of adultery?
Seforno: Because such is the way of the Yeitzer ha'Ra, to go from one wicked deed to another. 1
What are the implications of the word "Ish"?
Rashi: It precludes a Katan (under the age of nine) 1 and an animal, 2 neither of which render a woman a Sotah.
What is the word "Veshachav Ish Osah" coming to preclude?
Rashi (citing Yevamos, 95a): It precludes the wife's sister, who does not forbid her to her husband in the event that her husband committed adultery with her. 1
The Tanchuma cites a case where a Sotah's sister (who resembled her) went to Yerushalayim and, posing as the Sotah, drank the water of a Sotah and did not die. See Sifsei Chachamim and Torah Temimah, note 52, who explain why we would otherwise have thought that a woman is forbidden to her husband on account of his having had relations with her sister.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "Veshachav osah Shichvas Zera"?
Sotah, 26: To preclude where the man warned his wife against having close body contact with another man - or where the adulterer actually had close body contact with her 1 without being intimate.
See Torah Temimah, note 54.
What are the implications of the phrase "Vene'elam me'Einei Ishah"?
Rashi and Seforno: It implies where the husband was unaware of what hhis wife was doing (to preclude (a. the wife of a blind man from the Din of Sotah 1 - Rashi, 2 and b.) the wife of man whose husband saw what his wife was doing and simply turned a blind eye. 3
Sifri: "me'Einei Iyshah" implies that a Shomeres Yavam who commits adultery is permitted to the Yavam. 4
And in Pasuk 29 the Torah compares the Sotah to her husband in that she also does not drink if she is blind. See Torah Temimah there citing Sotah, 27a & b and note 153.
See Torah Temimah, note 55.
See Torah Temimah (citing the Sifri) and note 56. Seforno: Because if he is aware of what is happening and remains silent, the Mei Sotah will not work.
Refer also to 5:12:1.1:1.
What are the connotations of "Ve'nist'rah"?
Rashi: It means that they were secluded for as long as it takes for them to have been intimate (via Ha'ara'ah - partial entry of the male organ - Sotah, 4a). 1
Which is equivalent to the time it takes to roast an egg and eat it. See Sifsei Chachamim.
Why does the Torah add "ve'Hi Nitma'ah", even though it is not sure that she committed adultery?
Rashi #1 (citing the Sifri) and Targum Yonasan: With reference to "ve'Eid Ein bah" it means that there are no witnesses that she actually commited adultery with the adulterer - only that she secluded herself with him.
Rashi #2 (in Yevamos, 58a): To teach that, the moment witnesses testify that she secluded with the man concerned, she becomes forbidden to her husband (until she drinks from the Mei Sotah). 1
Yevamos 11a: To teach us that she has the same Din as Arayos, by whom the Torah also writes - at the end of Acharei-Mos - "Al Titam'u be'Chol Eileh", and that consequently, in the event that her husband dies, both she and her Tzarah (rival wife) are Patur from Yibum and Chalitzah.
Sotah, 28a: The Torah inserts the word "Nitma'ah" or "Venitma'ah" three times 2 in the Parshah, to teach us that she is forbidden to her husband, to the adulterer and (in the event that she is the wife of a Kohen) to eat Terumah.
Yerushalmi Sotah, 1:2: To teach us that the moment she secludes herself with the adulterer she is considered Tamei - and is forbidden to her husband. 3
What are the connotations of of "ve'Eid Ein bah"?
Rashi: It means that, even if there is only one witness 1 that she commited adultery, 2 she does not drink the Mei Sotah.
Rashbam, Moshav Zekeinim and Targum Yonasan: It means that there were no witnesses who saw her commit adultery - but there were witnesses who saw her secluding with a man. 3
Sotah, 2a: Whenever the Torah writes "Eid" without the word 'Echad', it means two witnesses. 4 Consequently, what the Torah means is that there are not two witnesses that she comminted adultery, only one - and she was not raped - she is forbidden to her husband and does not drink.
Sotah, 2b: "ve'Eid Ein Bah" -"Bah", ve'Lo be'Kinuy' "Bah", ''ve'Lo bi'Setirah' - the warning and the seclusion both require two witnsesses to make her drink. 5
Sotah, 6a: It implies that she only drinks if there no witnesses that she commited adultery, but that if there witnesses - who know that she did, even if they are overseas, drinking the water will be ineffective.
Even an Eved, even a Shifchah (Yerushalmi Sotah, 6:2). See Torah Temimah, note 67, who explains some of the current D'rashos based on the grammar of the wording.
Riva (Ibid): Though there must be two witnesses for the seclusion. See answer #4.. See also Sifsei Chachamim.
Moshav Zekenim: As implied by the word ?Bah?.
See Torah Temimah, Ibid. and note 63.
See Torah Temimah, note 64.
Why does the Torah believe one witness by a Sotah?
Sotah, 3a: Because the fact that she ignored her husband's warning and secluded herself with the other man supports the witnesses's testimony. 1
Sotah (Ibid.): Despite the fact that the Torah inserts the warning here after the seclusion that it mentioned in the previous Pasuk, "Ve'avar alav Ru'ach Kin'ah" refers to before the S'tirah. See also Torah Temimah, note 73.
What are the implications of "ve'Hi Lo Nispasah"?
Rashi: It means that the intimacy was performed with her consent, and not by way of a rape (in which case she would remain permitted to her husband - Rashbam). 1
Rashbam: It means that she secluded herself with the adulterer willinhgly, and not by force.
Why does the Torah insert the word "ve'Hi Lo Nispasah?
Kesuvos, 51b: To extrapolate that, even though a Sotah is only permitted to her husband if she was raped, there are other cases of women who are permitted to their husbands even though they were not raped - 1. where she was initially raped but then aquiesced to the rapist, 1 and 2. where she commited adultery with amother man and her Kidushin turns out to have been invalid. 2
Kesuvos, 51b: To extrapolate that, even though a Sotah is permitted to her husband if she was raped, there are other cases of women who are forbidden to their husbands even though they was raped - 1. a woman who is the wife of a Kohen; 3 2. where she initially aquiesced to the man but then changed her man and was forcibly raped - Yerushalmi Sotah, 4:4).
The Gemara in Sotah 28a learns from the repetition of "Nitma'ah" that she is forbidden to her husband and to the adulterer. Why do we need a Pasuk to forbid her to her husband? Even if he divorced her and she married another man with whom she was intimate be'Heter, she may not return to him, all the more so if she was intimate be'sur?
Moshav Zekeinim (in Pasuk 9): The Kal ve'Chomer is not referring to a Sotah, since it is a Safek whether or not she sinned. 1
Perhaps we cannot learn from the Kal va'Chomer, since a man may remarry his divorcee after she had Bi'as Z'nus, like the case of Sotah (PF).
Many hold that the Torah forbids Safek Isur. And perhaps even the Ramban forbids a Safek Kareis, since the Torah obligates Asham Taluy for it! We can say that the Drashah obligates Malkos when she definitelysinned (PF).
The Gemara in Sotah 2a learns from "Lo Yakum Eid Echad be'Ish" (Devarim 19:15) that elsewhere, "Eid" means two witnesses. Why don't we learn from a Binyan Av, that everywhere it is one? Also, we could learn from "ve'Eid Echad Lo Ya'aneh" (35:30), and "Lo Sa'aneh Eid Shaker" (Sh'mos 20:13) - surely one witness is not permitted to lie?
Moshav Zekeinim: Because the word "Echad" is superfluous, 1 since, if "Eid" always means 'one', the Torah should have omitted it.
Becauee this is a case of 'Sheloshah Kesuvim ha'Ba'im ke'Echad' (thre Pesukim which teach us the same thing), from which we cannot learn anything (PF).
The end of the Pasuki states "Al Pi Sh'nei Eidim ... Yakum Davar."
