Having already stated "Ve'he'emidah lifnei Hashem" in Pasuk 16, why does the Torah repeat it?
Rashi: This is part of a strategy which included moving her around from one location to another, to encourage her to confess her guilt, 1 by tiring her out and causing her to become confused.
Sotah, 27b: The Torah repeats it to teach the Kohen that if the Sotah is lame, she is not made to drink the Mei Sotah. 2
Yerushalmi Sotah 1:5: The Torah does not mean that she sat down in between, but that the purpose of standing the Sotah there in public place was to uncover her hair - and shame her publicly. 3
Targum Yonasan: The Kohen 4 then tied a rope around her loins 5 ? because she tied a belt around her loins for the adulterer.
Rashi: In order to avoid needlessly erasing the holy Name of Hashem.
And in Pasuk 29 the Torah compares the Sotah's husband to the Sotah in that she also does not drink if he is lame. See Torah Temimah there citing Sotah, 27a & b and note 153.
See also Torah Temimah, note 93.
This is not necessarily an answer to the question.
Targum Yonasan adds that the Kohen tied it above her breasts, but it is not clear how this tallies with ?round her loins?.
What are the connotations of "Lifnei Hashem"?
Rashi: It means ?by the Sha'ar Nikanor? 1 - the eastern gate leading from the Ezras Nashim to the Ezras Yisrael (which is where they give the Sotos to drink - Sotah, 8a).
See Sifsei Chachamim, who explains the name and as to why Rashi comments here and not in Pasuk 16. See also Torah Temimah, note 94.
Why does the Torah write "u'Fara Es Rosh ha'Ishah" and not simply "es Roshah"?
Sotah 8a: To teach us that the Kohen also uncovers (part of) the Sotah's body. 1
See Torah Temimah citing Sotah 6a and note 95.
What is the meaning of "u'Fara es Rosh ha'Ishah"?
Rashi #1 (citing the Sifri) and Targum Yonasan: It means that the Kohen unties 1 her plaits 2 in order to embarrass her. And we learn from here 3 that it is a disgrace for B'nos Yisrael to expose their hair. 4
Rashi #2 (in Sh'mos 32:25): It means 'He shall uncover her hair'. 5
Refer to 5:18:152:1.
Targum Yonasan: See Torah Temimah, note 95. Because she plaited her hair for her lover. By the same token, the Kohen tied a thick rope above her breasts to secure her dress ? because she wore a fancy belt to attract him.
See Torah Temimah, citing the Sifri, which learns this from the second D'rashah quoted by Rashi. Refer to 5:18:2:2 and note 95.
Shulchan Aruch (EH 21:2): Both single and married women must cover their hair. Pischei Teshuvah - most explain that this refers to Be'ulos. The Magen Avraham 75:3 forbids even a Besulah to go with unbraided hair. See also Sifsei Chachamim.
See Torah Temimah, note 96
Why does the Kohen now place the Minchah into the hands of the Sotah?
Rashi: To tire her out, so that, if she is guilty, she should confess - in order to avoid erasing the Name of Hashem unnecessarily. 1 Refer to 5:18:1:1.
Oznayim la'Torah: Because she is about to make a Shavu'ah, and since it is customary to hold an object of Mitzvah when making a Shavu'ah, - such as a Seifer Torah or Tefilin - her Minchah is the ideal such object for her to hold here. 2
"Venasan al Kapehah". What if the Sotah does not have hands?
Why is the Mei Sotah called 'bitter water'?
Rashi (citing the Sifri): Because when she drinks it, it will become bitter for her. 1
Ramban #1 (citing Sotah, 20a): The Kohen actually places something bitter 2 inBecause tto the water 3 in order to prompt her to admit her guilt in the event that she is guilty.
Ramban #2 (citing the Sifri): Because when the Kohen places the Parshah of Sotah into the water, the water turns bitter.
Ramban #3: When the Sotah drinks the water, it tastes sweet like any other water. However, if she is guilty, the moment it enters her stomach, she feels a bitter taste in her mouth and in her stomach, like someone who imbibes something that makes him feel that he wants to vomit.
See Sifsei Chachamim.
See Torah Temimah, note 110 citing Sotah, 20a, who extrapolates this from the words "Mei ha'Marim - 'implying that they are already bitter and not that they become bitter only later.
Ramban: Consequently, when, in Pasuk 27, the Torah writes "u'Va'u vah ha'Mayim ha'Me'arerim le'Marim", it is as if it had written "u'Va'u vah ha'Mayim ha'Marim li'Me'arerim". See Sifsei Chachamim cited above - in answer #1.
What is the definition of "ha'Me'arerim," bearing in mind that the water is holy water from the Kiyor?
Rashi #1: It means water that 'diminishes' the Sotah from the world. 1
Targum Yonasan: It means water that examines her. 4
Yerushalmi Sotah, 2:2: It actually refers to a black substance called 'Ered' 5 - which requires half a Log of water from the Kiyor to enable both the water and the substance to be discernable. 6
Yerushalmi Sotah, 5:1: The Gematriya of "ha'Me'ar'arim" is four hundred and ninety-six - the equivalent of the number of the combined limbs of the Sotah and the adulterer. 7
As in Yechezkel, 28:24. Rashi there translates it as (a thorn that) 'causes pain'.
It cannot mean 'cursed waters' since the water is holy water from the Kiyor (Rashi).
Ramban: Because of the oaths that are blotted out from the Parshah that the Kohen places in the water, which cause the curses to take effect.
See also Ba'al ha'Turim.
See Torah Temimah, note 101.
See Torah Temimah citing the Yerushalmi and note 102.
See Torah Temimah, note 103 and Ba'al ha'Turim
Why does the Torah insert "u've'Yad ha'Kohen Yih'yu ... "?
Sifri: To teach us that the water must become bitter whilst it is still in the hands of the Kohen - and not just before the Sotah drinks it. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 99.
Why must the Kohen hold the bitter water whilst she makes the Shevu'ah?
Oznayim la'Torah (citing the Midrash Rabah): In order to frighten her into admitting that she sinned - in the event that she is guilty - to avoid blotting out the Name of Hashem in the water.
Rashi learns from "u'Para es Rosh ha'Ishah" that he unbraids her hair. But in Ki Sisa Sh'mos, 32:25 he explained that Peri'ah means 'uncovering'?
Mizrachi: Here, he is eplaining the word "ha'Ishah" - since it could have written "Roshah". Gur Aryeh - we expound "es") to teach added exposure (unbraiding), just like it teaches that he exposes her body.
Malbim (56): 'Peri'ah' by a man means exposure; by a woman, in connection with whom the Torah calls braiding 'Binyan' 1 it means unbraiding.
Like Hashem did for Chavah/ See Bereisis, 2:22 - as the Gemara explains in Brachos 61a.
Why does the Kohen expose the Sotah's head and body?
Moshav Zekeinim (citing Sotah 7b): Because she exposed her head and body for the adulterer.
Rosh (in Pasuk 12): It is 'Midah ek'Neged Midah' - She arranged nice cloths on her head, so the Kohen removes her hat and puts it under his foot. She braided her hair for him, so the Kohen unbraids it. 1
Rosh: She beautified herself in order to sin, so Hashem makes her repulsive. She stood at her doorway, so she is stood up in Sha'ar Nikanor, and shows her disgrace to all. She adorned her face for him, so her face turns yellow. She painted her eyes for him, so they bulge out. She gestured with her fingers, so her fingernails fall out. She girded a Mitzri belt, so a Mitzri rope is tied above her breasts. She fed him dainties, so her Korban is animal food. She sinned covertly, Hashem exposes her in public.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that the Kohen unties her braids ... . An exposed head is disgraceful for married women, untied braids is not the same as an exposed head?
Moshav Zekeinim: If untying her braids is disgraceful, all the more so if the entire head is exposed.
Ha'Kesav ve'ha'Kabalah: 'Peri'ah' is when hair rests on her shoulders. For this he must also unbraid her hair.
He also exposes her head. Refer to 5:18:152:1.
